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Staff Nurse Exam Paper 2018 SSB DD and DNH with Answers
Q. 1. The purpose of anti-embolism stockings is to:
- Decrease the arterial circulation to the legs
- Reduce/Prevent edema of legs
- Promote warmth in the legs
- Decrease the venous circulation from leas
Reduce/Prevent edema of legs
Q. 2 The first line of intervention for prevention of infection is:
- Washing hands
- Administering antibiotics
- Assigning private room for patients
Wearing gloves
Washing hands
Q. 3. Which of the following is the reason for intradermal injection to be used for testing allergic reactions?
- It is less painful
- It diffuses slowly
- Diffuses rapidly
- It is easy to administer
Diffuses slowly
Q. 4. Which of these parameters indicates infection in a postoperative patient?
- Presence of an indwelling urinary catheter
- Red,
warm and tender incision site - Rectal temperature of 37.8 °C
White blood count of 6.000 cells/cu.mm
Red, warm and tender incision site
ESIC Exam Paper Staff Nurse Feb 2019
Q. 5. A postoperative patient receives a stat dose of injection Pethidine intramuscularly. After one hour, the nurse checks on pain relief. Which step of the nursing process is the nurse using here?
- Planning
- Evaluation
- Assessment
- Implementation
Evaluation
Q. 6. A patient with heart failure is on diuretics. Which is the accurate indicator of such a patient’s health status?
- Fluid intake and output
- Weight
- Vital signs
- Urine-specific gravity
Weight
Q. 7. Which route of drug administration provides a rapid response in a patient?
- Intramuscular
- Sublingual
- Subcutaneous
- Oral
Sublingual
Q. 8. Which type of data does auscultation provide?
- Objective
- Medical
- Secondary source
- Subjective
Objective
Q. 9 The purpose of deep palpation is to assess:
- Skin turgor
- Temperature
- Organs
- Hydration
Organs
Q. 10. In which type of sleep do most vivid dreams occur? SSB DD AND DNH STAFF NURSE AND NURSING OFFICER 27th Feb 2018
- Non-rapid eye movement sleep
- Non-hibernation sleep
- Hibernation sleep
- Rapid eye movement sleep
Rapid eye movement sleep
Q. 11. Colour blindness is due to the problem with:
- Lens
- Rods
- Aqueous humour
- Cones
Cones
Q. 12. The type of seizures that involves both sides of brain is called:
Generalized seizures- Partial seizures
- Secondary seizures
- Primary seizures
Q. 13. A score of 3 in a Glasgow coma scale indicates:
- Mutism
- Deep coma
- Lethargy
- Fully responsive person
Deep coma
Q.14. Which of these postoperative assessments of a patient subjected to kidney transplant has to be reported immediately to the physician?
- Serum potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L
- Urine output less than 20 ml/hour
- The temperature of 99 °F
- Serum sodium level of 137 mEq/L
Urine output less than 20 ml/hour
Q. 15. Genital herpes simplex increases the risk of
- Cervix
- Vagina
- Uterus
- Ovaries
Cervix
Q. 16. Surgical repair of hernia is:
- Herniorrhaphy
- Hemiectomy
- Fistulectomy
- Laparoscopy
Herniorrhaphy
Q.17. A nurse caring for a patient subjected to total laryngectomy should plan for:
- Alternative communication method
- Keeping tracheostomy cuff fully inflated
- Oral feeds at intervals
- Supine position for the patient
Alternative communication method
Q. 18. Barrel chest is seen in:
- Kyphoscoliosis
- Rickets
- Pneumonia
- Emphysema
Emphysema
Q. 19. An elderly female with osteoporosis is at risk of which of these complications?
- Bone fracture
- Loss of estrogen
- Dowager’s hump
- Negative calcium balance
Bone fracture
Q. 20. Vertigo is due to problem in: SSB DD AND DNH STAFF NURSE EXAM PAPER 27th Feb 2018
- External ear
- Middle ear
- Tympanic membrane
- inner ear
inner ear
Q. 21. How should a nurse position a patient for colonoscopy test?
- To lay the patient prone with buttocks elevated
- Lay the patient in the
knee-chest position - Lay the patient on his/her right side of the body with legs straight
- To lay the patient on his/her left side of the body with legs bent
To lay the patient on his/her left side of the body with legs bent
Q. 22. Which of the following listed drugs is a proton pump inhibitor?
- Sucralfate
- Ranitidine
- Famotidine
- Pantoprazole
Pantoprazole
Q. 23. The most common adverse effect of chemotherapeutic drugs is:
- Constipation
- Nausea and vomiting
- Painful mouth sores
- Frequent diarrhea
Nausea and vomiting
Q. 24. Positive Kemig’s sign is observed in:
- Meningitis
- Nephritis
- Appendicitis
- Cholecystitis
Meningitis
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Q. 25. Which laboratory investigation is essential for a patient admitted in an emergency with severe angina and ST elevation?
- Creatine kinase level
- Hemoglobin
- Troponin level
- Liver enzymes
Troponin level
Q. 26. K Bind is given for patients with:
- Hyponatremia
- Hypokalemia
- Hyperkalemia
- Hypernatremia
Hyperkalemia
Q. 27. Which risk factor for diabetes mellitus is non-modifiable?
- Advancing age
- Obesity
- Physical inactivity
- Poor control of blood glucose level
Advancing age
Q. 28. The clinical manifestations of Cushing’s syndrome are?
- Anorexia and weight loss
- Hyperkalemia and peripheral edema
- Moon facies and truncal obesity
- Hypotension and dizziness
Moon facies and truncal obesity
Q. 29. Colie’s fracture refers to the fracture of:
- Humerus
- Olecranon
- Ulna
- Radius
Radius
Q. 30. Which of the below-mentioned signs indicates obstructive jaundice? SSB DD AND DNH STAFF NURSE EXAM PAPER 2018
- Elevated urobilinogen in urine
- Clay-colored stools
- Reduced hematocrit
- Straw-colored urine
Clay-colored stools
Q. 31. The final step in the purification of water on a large scale is:
- Disinfection
- Storage
- Filtration
- Boiling
Disinfection
Q. 32. The goal of Mission Indradhanush launched by Government of India is to:
- Eradicate poverty and hunger
- Improve maternal health
- Vaccinate all under-fives
- Achieve universal primary education
Vaccinate all under-fives
Q. 33. Deficiency of vitamin D in adults leads to:
- Keratomalacia
- Osteomalacia
- Rickets
- Osteoporosis
Osteomalacia
Q. 34. A method used for individual health education in the community is:
- Demonstration
- Roleplay
- Workshop
- Counseling and interview
Counseling and interview
Q. 35. Averting the transition of disability into handicap relates to which level of prevention?
- Tertiary
- Primary
- Secondary
- Primordial
Tertiary
Q. 36. The minimum interval between the two doses of tetanus toxoid injection for a pregnant woman should be:
- Eight weeks
- Two weeks
- Three weeks
- Four weeks
Four weeks
Q. 37. The measurement of the probability of occurrence of a given medical condition in a population within a specified period of time is called:
- Prevalence
- Incidence
- Pandemic
- Epidemic
Incidence
Q. 38. Inhalation of cotton fiber dust over long periods of time results in:
- Siderosis
- Anthracosis
- Byssinosis
- Basassosis
Byssinosis
Q. 39. Hepatitis C is most commonly transmitted through:
- Infected blood
- Causal hugging and kissing
- Sexual contact
- Breast milk
Infected blood
Q. 40. Green-color-coded treatment under Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illness (IMNCI) refers to: SSB DD AND DNH STAFF NURSE AND NURSING OFFICER 27th Feb 2018
- Urgent referral
- Inpatient treatment
- Outpatient treatment
- Home care
Home care
Q. 41. Inability to retract the prepuce to reveal the glans penis is called:
- Hypospadias
- Phimosis
- Cryptorchidism
- Epispadias
Phimosis
Q. 42. Which of these is a cyanotic heart defect?
- Patent Ductus Arteriosus
- Ventricular septal defect
- Atrial septal defect
- Tetralogy of Fallot
Tetralogy of Fallot
Q. 43. In which position should the nurse place the infant to examine the thyroid gland?
- Standing
- Prone
- Supine
- Sitting
Supine
Q. 44. Bitot’s spots are found due to the deficiency of Vitamin:
- B2
- C
- A
- B1
A
Q. 45. The important aspect to be included in the discharge plan of a child with cleft lip and palate is:
- Adherence to antibiotic therapy
- Administration of vitamin supplements
- Establishment of adequate feeding pattern
- Application of sterile dressing over the lip
Establishment of adequate feeding pattern
Q. 46. Which of these signs indicates tracheoesophageal fistula immediately after birth?
- Passage of frothy meconium
- Continuous drooling
- Slow response to stimuli
- Diaphragmatic breathing
Continuous drooling
Q. 47. which of these assessments indicate dehydration in a preterm neonate?
- Urine output below 1 ml/hr
- Bulging fontanels
- Good skin turgor
- Excessive weight gain
Urine output below 1 ml/hr
Q. 48. Sway back appearance is seen in a child w ith:
- Lordosis
- Talipes
- Scoliosis
- Kyphosis
Lordosis
Q. 49. An infant can sit steadily without support at the age of:
- 6 months
- 12 months
- 8 months
- 10 months
8 months
Q. 50. Which of these vaccines are recommended at birth according to National Immunization Schedule? SSB DD AND DNH STAFF NURSE AND NURSING OFFICER 27th Feb 2018
- BCG. Hepatitis B, OPV
- BCG. Hepatitis B, DPT
- BCG. DPT, OPV
- DPT. OPV, Hepatitis B
BCG. Hepatitis B, OPV
Q. 51. From which of these populations does a researcher select the actual study samples?
- Target
- Universal
- Accessible
- Scientific
Accessible
Q. 52. Which of these terms refers to the extent a tool measures what it is supposed to measure?
- Stability
- Validity
- Reliability
- Specificity
Validity
Q. 53. Which of the following is a measure of dispersion?
- Mode
- Standard deviation
- Mean
- Median
Standard deviation
Q. 54. A blueprint for the conduction of study is:
- Research design
- Research hypothesis
- Pilot study
- Data collection tool
Research design
Q. 55. Which of these designs is used to estimate the prevalence of osteoporosis?
- Factorial
- Cross-sectional
- Quasi experimental
- Cross-over
Cross-sectional
Q. 56. What phase of drinking pattern is a person experiencing if he/she uses alcohol as a stress reliever?
- Early alcoholic phase
- Pre alcoholic phase
- Crucial phase
- Chronic phase
Pre alcoholic phase
Q. 57. Which defense mechanism is used by a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder?
- Suppression
- Undoing
- Denial
- Repression
Undoing
Q. 58. Uncontrolled eating of food, followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviors to get rid of excess calories, is called:
- Anorexia Nervosa
- Bulimia Nervosa
- Binge eating disorder
- Pervasive eating syndrome
Bulimia Nervosa
Nursing Exam Model Question Paper A&P
Q. 59. Persistently repeating the same word or idea in response to different questions is termed as:
- Mutism
- Word salad
- Tangentiality
- Perseveration
Perseveration
Q. 60. An effective alteration symptom exhibited by a patient with severe depression is: SSB DD AND DNH STAFF NURSE AND NURSING OFFICER 27th Feb 2018
- Anger
- Apathy
- Social isolation
- Tearfulness
Apathy
Q. 61. The goal of phototherapy in a newborn is to:
- Decrease the serum conjugated bilirubin level
- Prevent hypothermia
- Decrease the serum unconjugated bilirubin level
- Promote respiratory stability
Decrease the serum unconjugated bilirubin level
Q. 62. A late complication of molar pregnancy is:
- Shock
- Coagulation failure
- Uterine perforation
- Choriocarcinoma
Choriocarcinoma
Q. 63. The co-ordination between fundal contraction and cervical dilatation is called as:
- Retraction
- Fundal dominance
- Polarity
- Effacement
Polarity
Q. 64. Which of the following is exhibited by a mother with postpartum depression?
- Hallucinations
- Uncontrolled crying
- Delusions
- Confusion
Uncontrolled crying
Q. 65. Which of these is a galactopoietic hormone?
- Estrogen
- Oxytocin
- Prolactin
- Progesterone
Prolactin
Q. 66. After birth, the umbilical vein collapses and forms:
- Ligamentum arteriosum
- Ligamentum venosum
- Ligamentum teres
- Ligamentum umbilicus
Ligamentum teres
Q. 67. Which of these is considered as dangerous Placenta previa?
- Type II anterior
- Type I posterior
- Type I anterior
- Type II posterior
Type II Posterior
Q. 68. A nurse should monitor intake and output during oxytocin administration, because the drug
- Increases thirst
- Causes toxicity for kidneys
- Causes water intoxication
- Induces diuretic effect
Causes water intoxication
Q. 69. An amniotic fluid index of less than 5 cm indicates:
- Anhydramnios
- Polyhydramnios
- Hydramnios
- Oligohydramnios
Oligohydramnios
Q. 70. Which of these parameters should be assessed during the first minute of life in a newborn:
- Weight length, head circumference
- Colour, respiration, heart rate
- Colour, respiration, temperature
- Gestational age, sex, muscle tone
Colour, respiration, heart rate
Q. 71. Compression effect of gravid uterus on the inferior vena cava results in:
- Carpal tunnel syndrome
- HELLP syndrome
- Supine hypotension syndrome
- Supine hypertension syndrome
Supine hypotension syndrome
Q. 72. The third stage of labour ends with:
- Full dilatation of the cervix
- Delivery of placenta
- Two hours after the birth of the baby
- Birth of baby
Delivery of placenta
Q. 73. Which of these actions is NOT appropriate for a mother with early postpartum hemorrhage?
- Check pad count
- Apply fundal massage
- Insert an indwelling urinary catheter
- Administer oxytocic
Check pad count
Q. 74. In which type of abortion is the fetus dead and retained inside the uterus for a variable period?
- Incomplete
- Inevitable
- Threatened
- Missed
Missed
Q. 75. A mother with 9- month baby is planning for tubectomy. What is the ideal time for surgery following menstruation?
Menstrual Cycle, Menses phase & Abnormality
- Proliferative phase
- Menstrual phase
- Ovulatory phase
- Secretory phase
Proliferative phase
Q. 76. Which of these is a sign of previous child birth?
- Ovoid uterus
- Rigid abdominal wall
- Conical cervix with round external os
- Gaping introitus
Gaping introitus
Q. 77. Fetal heart sounds can be detected using a Pinard stethoscope between
- 22-24 weeks
- 10-12 weeks
- 14-16 weeks
- 16-18 weeks
22-24 weeks
Q. 78. Which of these is an alarming sign of pre-eclampsia?
- Deep tendon reflexes 4+
- Edema grade of +2
- Blood pressure of 150/90
- Proteinuria of +2
Deep tendon reflexes 4+
Q. 79. which information about uterine contractions should be documented in the first stage of labor?
- Dilatation, duration, and frequency
- Duration, frequency, and intensity
- Dilatation, effacement, and position
- Frequency, duration, and position
Duration, frequency and intensity
Q. 80. Which of these drugs is contraindicated in a laboring mother with hypertension?
- Prostaglandins
- Oxytocin
- Magnesium sulphate
- Methergine
Methergine
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