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Staff Nurse Exam Paper 2018 SSB DD and DNH with Answers

Q. 1. The purpose of anti-embolism stockings is to:

1. Decrease the arterial circulation to the legs
2. Reduce/Prevent edema of legs
3. Promote warmth in the legs
4. Decrease the venous circulation from leas

Reduce/Prevent edema of legs

Q. 2 The first line of intervention for prevention of infection is:

1. Washing hands
2. Administering antibiotics
3. Assigning private room for patients
4. Wearing gloves

Washing hands

Q. 3. Which of the following is the reason for intradermal injection to be used for testing allergic reactions?

1. It is less painful
2. It diffuses slowly
3. Diffuses rapidly
4. It is easy to administer

Diffuses slowly

Q. 4. Which of these parameters indicates infection in a postoperative patient?

1. Presence of an indwelling urinary catheter
2. Red, warm and tender incision site
3. Rectal temperature of 37.8 °C
4. White blood count of 6.000 cells/cu.mm

Red, warm and tender incision site

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Q. 5. A postoperative patient receives a stat dose of injection Pethidine intramuscularly. After one hour, the nurse checks on pain relief. Which step of the nursing process is the nurse using here?

1. Planning
2. Evaluation
3. Assessment
4. Implementation

Evaluation

Q. 6. A patient with heart failure is on diuretics. Which is the accurate indicator of such a patient’s health status?

1. Fluid intake and output
2. Weight
3. Vital signs
4. Urine-specific gravity

Weight

Q. 7. Which route of drug administration provides a rapid response in a patient?

1. Intramuscular
2. Sublingual
3. Subcutaneous
4. Oral

Sublingual

Q. 8. Which type of data does auscultation provide?

1. Objective
2. Medical
3. Secondary source
4. Subjective

Objective

Q. 9 The purpose of deep palpation is to assess:

1. Skin turgor
2. Temperature
3. Organs
4. Hydration

Organs

Q. 10. In which type of sleep do most vivid dreams occur? SSB DD AND DNH STAFF NURSE AND NURSING OFFICER 27th Feb 2018

1. Non-rapid eye movement sleep
2. Non-hibernation sleep
3. Hibernation sleep
4. Rapid eye movement sleep

Rapid eye movement sleep

Q. 11. Colour blindness is due to the problem with:

1. Lens
2. Rods
3. Aqueous humour
4. Cones

Cones

Q. 12. The type of seizures that involves both sides of brain is called:

1. Generalized seizures
2. Partial seizures
3. Secondary seizures
4. Primary seizures

Generalized seizures

Q. 13. A score of 3 in a Glasgow coma scale indicates:

1. Mutism
2. Deep coma
3. Lethargy
4. Fully responsive person

Deep coma

Q.14. Which of these postoperative assessments of a patient subjected to kidney transplant has to be reported immediately to the physician?

1. Serum potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L
2. Urine output less than 20 ml/hour
3. The temperature of 99 °F
4. Serum sodium level of 137 mEq/L

Urine output less than 20 ml/hour 

Q. 15. Genital herpes simplex increases the risk of

1. Cervix
2. Vagina
3. Uterus
4. Ovaries

Cervix

Q. 16. Surgical repair of hernia is:

1. Herniorrhaphy
2. Hemiectomy
3. Fistulectomy
4. Laparoscopy

Herniorrhaphy

Q.17. A nurse caring for a patient subjected to total laryngectomy should plan for:

1. Alternative communication method
2. Keeping tracheostomy cuff fully inflated
3. Oral feeds at intervals
4. Supine position for the patient

Alternative communication method

Q. 18. Barrel chest is seen in:

1. Kyphoscoliosis
2. Rickets
3. Pneumonia
4. Emphysema

Emphysema

Q. 19. An elderly female with osteoporosis is at risk of which of these complications?

1. Bone fracture
2. Loss of estrogen
3. Dowager’s hump
4. Negative calcium balance

Bone fracture

Q. 20. Vertigo is due to problem in: SSB DD AND DNH STAFF NURSE EXAM PAPER 27th Feb 2018

1. External ear
2. Middle ear
3. Tympanic membrane
4. inner ear

inner ear

Q. 21. How should a nurse position a patient for colonoscopy test?

1. To lay the patient prone with buttocks elevated
2. Lay the patient in the knee-chest position
3. Lay the patient on his/her right side of the body with legs straight
4. To lay the patient on his/her left side of the body with legs bent

To lay the patient on his/her left side of the body with legs bent

Q. 22. Which of the following listed drugs is a proton pump inhibitor?

1. Sucralfate
2. Ranitidine
3. Famotidine
4. Pantoprazole

Pantoprazole

Q. 23. The most common adverse effect of chemotherapeutic drugs is:

1. Constipation
2. Nausea and vomiting
3. Painful mouth sores
4. Frequent diarrhea

Nausea and vomiting

Q. 24. Positive Kemig’s sign is observed in:

1. Meningitis
2. Nephritis
3. Appendicitis
4. Cholecystitis

Meningitis

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Q. 25. Which laboratory investigation is essential for a patient admitted in an emergency with severe angina and ST elevation?

1. Creatine kinase level
2. Hemoglobin
3. Troponin level
4. Liver enzymes

Troponin level

Q. 26. K Bind is given for patients with:

1. Hyponatremia
2. Hypokalemia
3. Hyperkalemia
4. Hypernatremia

Hyperkalemia

Q. 27. Which risk factor for diabetes mellitus is non-modifiable?

1. Advancing age
2. Obesity
3. Physical inactivity
4. Poor control of blood glucose level

Advancing age

Q. 28. The clinical manifestations of Cushing’s syndrome are?

1. Anorexia and weight loss
2. Hyperkalemia and peripheral edema
3. Moon facies and truncal obesity
4. Hypotension and dizziness

Moon facies and truncal obesity

Q. 29. Colie’s fracture refers to the fracture of:

1. Humerus
2. Olecranon
3. Ulna
4. Radius

Radius

Q. 30. Which of the below-mentioned signs indicates obstructive jaundice? SSB DD AND DNH STAFF NURSE EXAM PAPER 2018

1. Elevated urobilinogen in urine
2. Clay-colored stools
3. Reduced hematocrit
4. Straw-colored urine

Clay-colored stools

Q. 31. The final step in the purification of water on a large scale is:

1. Disinfection
2. Storage
3. Filtration
4. Boiling

Disinfection

Q. 32. The goal of Mission Indradhanush launched by Government of India is to:

1. Eradicate poverty and hunger
2. Improve maternal health
3. Vaccinate all under-fives
4. Achieve universal primary education

Vaccinate all under-fives

Q. 33. Deficiency of vitamin D in adults leads to:

1. Keratomalacia
2. Osteomalacia
3. Rickets
4. Osteoporosis

Osteomalacia

Q. 34. A method used for individual health education in the community is:

1. Demonstration
2. Roleplay
3. Workshop
4. Counseling and interview

Counseling and interview

Q. 35. Averting the transition of disability into handicap relates to which level of prevention?

1. Tertiary
2. Primary
3. Secondary
4. Primordial

Tertiary

Q. 36. The minimum interval between the two doses of tetanus toxoid injection for a pregnant woman should be:

1. Eight weeks
2. Two weeks
3. Three weeks
4. Four weeks

Four weeks

Q. 37. The measurement of the probability of occurrence of a given medical condition in a population within a specified period of time is called:

1. Prevalence
2. Incidence
3. Pandemic
4. Epidemic

Incidence

Q. 38. Inhalation of cotton fiber dust over long periods of time results in:

1. Siderosis
2. Anthracosis
3. Byssinosis
4. Basassosis

Byssinosis

Q. 39. Hepatitis C is most commonly transmitted through:

1. Infected blood
2. Causal hugging and kissing
3. Sexual contact
4. Breast milk

Infected blood

Q. 40. Green-color-coded treatment under Integrated Management of Neonatal and Childhood Illness (IMNCI) refers to: SSB DD AND DNH STAFF NURSE AND NURSING OFFICER 27th Feb 2018

1. Urgent referral
2. Inpatient treatment
3. Outpatient treatment
4. Home care

Home care

Q. 41. Inability to retract the prepuce to reveal the glans penis is called:

1. Hypospadias
2. Phimosis
3. Cryptorchidism
4. Epispadias

Phimosis

Q. 42. Which of these is a cyanotic heart defect?

1. Patent Ductus Arteriosus
2. Ventricular septal defect
3. Atrial septal defect
4. Tetralogy of Fallot

Tetralogy of Fallot

Q. 43. In which position should the nurse place the infant to examine the thyroid gland?

1. Standing
2. Prone
3. Supine
4. Sitting

Supine

Q. 44. Bitot’s spots are found due to the deficiency of Vitamin:

1. B2
2. C
3. A
4. B1

A

Q. 45. The important aspect to be included in the discharge plan of a child with cleft lip and palate is:

1. Adherence to antibiotic therapy
2. Administration of vitamin supplements
3. Establishment of adequate feeding pattern
4. Application of sterile dressing over the lip

Establishment of adequate feeding pattern

Aiims Nursing Question Paper

Q. 46. Which of these signs indicates tracheoesophageal fistula immediately after birth?

1. Passage of frothy meconium
2. Continuous drooling
3. Slow response to stimuli
4. Diaphragmatic breathing

Continuous drooling

Q. 47. which of these assessments indicate dehydration in a preterm neonate?

1. Urine output below 1 ml/hr
2. Bulging fontanels
3. Good skin turgor
4. Excessive weight gain

Urine output below 1 ml/hr

Q. 48. Sway back appearance is seen in a child w ith:

1. Lordosis
2. Talipes
3. Scoliosis
4. Kyphosis

Lordosis

Q. 49. An infant can sit steadily without support at the age of:

1. 6 months
2. 12 months
3. 8 months
4. 10 months

8 months

Q. 50. Which of these vaccines are recommended at birth according to National Immunization Schedule? SSB DD AND DNH STAFF NURSE AND NURSING OFFICER 27th Feb 2018

1. BCG. Hepatitis B, OPV
2. BCG. Hepatitis B, DPT
3. BCG. DPT, OPV
4. DPT. OPV, Hepatitis B

BCG. Hepatitis B, OPV

Q. 51. From which of these populations does a researcher select the actual study samples?

1. Target
2. Universal
3. Accessible
4. Scientific

Accessible

Q. 52. Which of these terms refers to the extent a tool measures what it is supposed to measure?

1. Stability
2. Validity
3. Reliability
4. Specificity

Validity

Q. 53. Which of the following is a measure of dispersion?

1. Mode
2. Standard deviation
3. Mean
4. Median

Standard deviation

Q. 54. A blueprint for the conduction of study is:

1. Research design
2. Research hypothesis
3. Pilot study
4. Data collection tool

Research design

Q. 55. Which of these designs is used to estimate the prevalence of osteoporosis?

1. Factorial
2. Cross-sectional
3. Quasi experimental
4. Cross-over

Cross-sectional

Q. 56. What phase of drinking pattern is a person experiencing if he/she uses alcohol as a stress reliever?

1. Early alcoholic phase
2. Pre alcoholic phase
3. Crucial phase
4. Chronic phase

Pre alcoholic phase

Q. 57. Which defense mechanism is used by a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder?

1. Suppression
2. Undoing
3. Denial
4. Repression

Undoing

Q. 58. Uncontrolled eating of food, followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviors to get rid of excess calories, is called:

1. Anorexia Nervosa
2. Bulimia Nervosa
3. Binge eating disorder
4. Pervasive eating syndrome

Bulimia Nervosa

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Q. 59. Persistently repeating the same word or idea in response to different questions is termed as:

1. Mutism
2. Word salad
3. Tangentiality
4. Perseveration

Perseveration

Q. 60. An effective alteration symptom exhibited by a patient with severe depression is: SSB DD AND DNH STAFF NURSE AND NURSING OFFICER 27th Feb 2018

1. Anger
2. Apathy
3. Social isolation
4. Tearfulness

Apathy

Q. 61. The goal of phototherapy in a newborn is to:

1. Decrease the serum conjugated bilirubin level
2. Prevent hypothermia
3. Decrease the serum unconjugated bilirubin level
4. Promote respiratory stability

Decrease the serum unconjugated bilirubin level

Q. 62. A late complication of molar pregnancy is:

1. Shock
2. Coagulation failure
3. Uterine perforation
4. Choriocarcinoma

Choriocarcinoma

Q. 63. The co-ordination between fundal contraction and cervical dilatation is called as:

1. Retraction
2. Fundal dominance
3. Polarity
4. Effacement

Polarity

Q. 64. Which of the following is exhibited by a mother with postpartum depression?

1. Hallucinations
2. Uncontrolled crying
3. Delusions
4. Confusion

Uncontrolled crying

Q. 65. Which of these is a galactopoietic hormone?

1. Estrogen
2. Oxytocin
3. Prolactin
4. Progesterone

Prolactin

Q. 66. After birth, the umbilical vein collapses and forms:

1. Ligamentum arteriosum
2. Ligamentum venosum
3. Ligamentum teres
4. Ligamentum umbilicus

Ligamentum teres

Q. 67. Which of these is considered as dangerous Placenta previa?

1. Type II anterior
2. Type I posterior
3. Type I anterior
4. Type II posterior

Type II Posterior

Q. 68. A nurse should monitor intake and output during oxytocin administration, because the drug

1. Increases thirst
2. Causes toxicity for kidneys
3. Causes water intoxication
4. Induces diuretic effect

Causes water intoxication

Q. 69. An amniotic fluid index of less than 5 cm indicates:

1. Anhydramnios
2. Polyhydramnios
3. Hydramnios
4. Oligohydramnios

Oligohydramnios

Q. 70. Which of these parameters should be assessed during the first minute of life in a newborn:

1. Weight length, head circumference
2. Colour, respiration, heart rate
3. Colour, respiration, temperature
4. Gestational age, sex, muscle tone

Colour, respiration, heart rate

Q. 71. Compression effect of gravid uterus on the inferior vena cava results in:

1. Carpal tunnel syndrome
2. HELLP syndrome
3. Supine hypotension syndrome
4. Supine hypertension syndrome

Supine hypotension syndrome

Q. 72. The third stage of labour ends with:

1. Full dilatation of the cervix
2. Delivery of placenta
3. Two hours after the birth of the baby
4. Birth of baby

Delivery of placenta

Q. 73. Which of these actions is NOT appropriate for a mother with early postpartum hemorrhage?

1. Check pad count
2. Apply fundal massage
3. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter
4. Administer oxytocic

Check pad count

Q. 74. In which type of abortion is the fetus dead and retained inside the uterus for a variable period?

1. Incomplete
2. Inevitable
3. Threatened
4. Missed

Missed

Q. 75. A mother with 9- month baby is planning for tubectomy. What is the ideal time for surgery following menstruation?

Menstrual Cycle, Menses phase & Abnormality

1. Proliferative phase
2. Menstrual phase
3. Ovulatory phase
4. Secretory phase

Proliferative phase

Q. 76. Which of these is a sign of previous child birth?

1. Ovoid uterus
2. Rigid abdominal wall
3. Conical cervix with round external os
4. Gaping introitus

Gaping introitus

Q. 77. Fetal heart sounds can be detected using a Pinard stethoscope between

1. 22-24 weeks
2. 10-12 weeks
3. 14-16 weeks
4. 16-18 weeks

22-24 weeks

Q. 78. Which of these is an alarming sign of pre-eclampsia?

1. Deep tendon reflexes 4+
2. Edema grade of +2
3. Blood pressure of 150/90
4. Proteinuria of +2

Deep tendon reflexes 4+

Q. 79. which information about uterine contractions should be documented in the first stage of labor?

1. Dilatation, duration, and frequency
2. Duration, frequency, and intensity
3. Dilatation, effacement, and position
4. Frequency, duration, and position

Duration, frequency and intensity

Q. 80. Which of these drugs is contraindicated in a laboring mother with hypertension?

1. Prostaglandins
2. Oxytocin
3. Magnesium sulphate
4. Methergine

Methergine

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