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STAFF NURSE EXAM SOLVED PAPER PDF| STAFF NURSE EXAM SOLVED PAPER PDF DOWNLOAD FREE


AIIMS Pdf Staff Nurse Exam Solved Paper is available here as Pdf Answer Staff Nurse Exam Solved Paper along with Staff Nurse Question Paper 2021 PDF with Answer. Aspirants can find Staff Nurse Question Paper 2021 PDF Shift 1 and Staff Nurse Exam Solved Paper PDF along with Solved Question Paper for Staff Nurse Exam here.




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Aspirants, Staff Nurse - Nursing Officer Recruitment Examination question papers and Answers published here. These question answers are helpful for preparing future Nurses recruitment Examinations. The Question Paper is available in Pdf Format. There are 100 Multiple choice Nursing Questions- 4 options under each questions, you choose any right answer in a rough sheet and later on check that did you answer correctly by comparing your answers with the answers provided below.

 


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Staff Nurse Exam Solved Paper


Staff Nurse Exam Solved Paper of Nursing in Health Services Dept (Category No: 224/2009)

Q 1. Which of the following is an important nursing intervention for a patient with Cushing Syndrome?
(a) Left Middle Cerebral Artery 
(b) Observe for hypotension
(c) Protect from infection 
(d) Restrict carbohydrate intake.

Ans: Protect from infection.

Q 2. Involvement of which of the following structures will lead to right-sided hemiplegia and aphasia?
(a) Left Middle Cerebral Artery 
(b) Vertebral Artery 
(c) Brain stems
(d) Right Middle Cerebral Artery.

Ans: Left Middle Cerebral Artery

Q 3. Which one of the following is a common response expected in a patient with stroke, to the change in body image?
(a) Denial 
(b) Disassociation 
(c) Delusion 
(d) Depression.

Ans: Depression.

Q 4. For doing nasotracheal suctioning, during which of the following patient activities, the catheter should be inserted?
(a) Swallowing 
(b) Inhaling 
(c) Exhaling 
(d) Retching

Ans: Inhaling

Q 5. What is cyanosis?
(a) Blue discoloration of the skin.
(b) Red discoloration of the skin.
(c) Yellow discoloration of the skin.
(d) Pink discoloration of the skin.

Ans. Blue discoloration of the skin.


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Q 6. Which of the following developmental stage corresponds to infancy?
(A) Trust Vs Mistrust 
(b) Autonomy Vs Shame 
(c) Initiative Vs Guilt 
(d) Industry Vs Inferiority.

Ans: Trust Vs Mistrust

Q 7. The head circumference of a normal infant is –
(a) 30-32 cm
(b) 33-35 cm
(c) 37-40 cm
(d) 40-45 cm

 Ans. 33-35 cm
 

Q 8. Which of the following structures controls heat loss?
(a) Anterior pituitary
(b) Posterior pituitary 
(c) Posterior hypothalamus
(d) Anterior hypothalamus

Ans: Anterior hypothalamus

Q 9. How many drops in a standard drip set make one ml.?
(a) 12
(b) 15
(c) 18
(d) 21

Ans 15

Q 10. The prescription orders 0.125 mg digoxin orally. Tablets containing 0.25 mg are available. How many tablets will you administer?
(a) 1/4
(b) 1/2
(C) 2/3
(d) 3/5

Ans 1/2


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Q 11. A patient who is receiving intravenous fluids develops tenderness, warmth, erythema, and pain at the infusion site. Which of the following conditions will you suspect?
(a) Sepsis 
(b) Infiltration 
(c) Fluid overloads 
(d) Phlebitis

Ans: Phlebitis

Q 12. What is the intrinsic rate of the normal A-V node?
(a) 30-50 per minute
(b) 60-80 per minute
(c) 70-90 per minute
(d) 40-60 per minute

Ans: 40-60 per minute

Q 13. Which of the following structures is the pacemaker of the heart?
(a) S-A node 
(b) Septum 
(c) A-V node 
(d) Bundle of His

Ans: S-A node

Q 14. The prescription is for two tablespoons of milk of magnesia. How many ml. will you give?
(a) 10 ml
(b) 15 ml
(c) 30 ml
(d) 60 ml

Ans: 30 ml

Q 15. Which of the following is intravascular fluid?
(a) Lymph 
(b) Pleural fluid 
(c) Plasma 
(d) Synovial fluid

Ans: Plasma



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Q 16. Which of the following is an isotonic solution?
(a) Lactated Ringers 
(b) Half –Normal Saline 
(c) One-third Normal Saline
(d) Mannitol

Ans: Lactated Ringers

Q 17. Which of the following drugs provide relief of anxiety and decrease both preload and afterload?
(a) Amrinone 
(b) Morphine sulfate 
(c) Furosemide
(d) Dobutamine

Ans: Morphine sulfate

Q 18. A patient admitted with vomiting, has the following arterial blood gas levels-pH 7.30; PaCO2 36 mm Hg; Pa O2 92mm Hg; and HCO3 18; what is the acid-base imbalance that is present?
(a) Metabolic alkalosis
(b) Metabolic acidosis
(c) Respiratory alkalosis
(d) Respiratory acidosis

Ans: Metabolic acidosis

Q 19. Which of the following is a first-line drug used for pain management?
(a) Acetaminophen 
(b) Clonidine 
(c) Morphine 
(d) Ketamine

Ans: Acetaminophen

Q 20. Which of the following is the organism that causes peptic ulcer disease?
(a) Staphylococcus 
(b) Corynebacterium 
(c) Helicobacter pylori
(d) Streptococcus.

Ans: Helicobacter pylori

Q 21. Which of the following nutrients helps for tissue repair?
(a) Vitamin 
(b) Fat 
(c) Carbohydrate 
(d) Protein

Ans: Protein

Q 22. Which of the following patient activities helps to relax the external anal sphincter, while administering enema?
(a) Separating the buttocks 
(b) Lubricating the catheter tip
(c) Inserting the catheter slowly 
(d) Breathing out through the mouth.

Ans: Breathing out through the mouth.

Q 23. Which of the following is the best method to confirm the placement of the nasogastric tube:
(a) Checking the patient’s ability to talk 
(b) Aspiration of intestinal content
(c) Introducing air and auscultating 
(d) X-ray of chest and abdomen

Ans: X-ray of chest and abdomen

Q 24. Which of the following is a common cause of orthostatic hypotension in a bedridden Patient?
(a) Increased autonomic response 
(b) Decreased circulating blood volume
(c) Increased cardiac output 
(d) Decreased blood pooling

Ans: Decreased circulating blood volume.

Q 25. Which of the following body parts has a condyloid joint?
(a) Shoulder 
(b) Elbow 
(c) Wrist 
(d) Forearm

Ans: Wrist



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26. In which stage Oedipus complex occur in children?

(A) Oral stage 

(B) Anal stage 

(C) Phallic stage 

(D) Genital stage 

27. A lumbar puncture is performed on a child suspected of having bacterial meningitis and CSF is obtained for analysis. The nurse confirms the diagnosis with which of the following result?

(a) Clear CSF, elevated protein and decreased glucose levels

(b) Clear   CSF, decreased pressure and elevated protein levels

(c) Cloudy CSF, elevated protein and decreased glucose levels

(d) Cloudy CSF, decreased protein and decreased glucose levels

28. A 40 year old man is diagnosed with essential hypertension whose blood pressure levels are consistently at or above which of the following

(A) 120/90 mm Hg 

(B) 130 mm Hg 

(C) 140/90 mm/HG 

(D) 140/179 mm Hg 

29. Hypophysectomy means

(a) Removal of parathyroid

(b) Removal of ovaries

(c) Removal of pituitary gland

(d) Removal of adrenal gland

30. The nurse should teach the diabetic client that which of the following is the most common symptom of hypoglycemia

(a) Nervousness

(b) Anorexia

(c) Kassmaul’s respiration

(d) Brady cardia



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31. Which types of anemia is caused by absence of Cyanobacteria

(A) Dimorphic anemia 

(B) Megalomaniac anemia 

(C) Iron deficiency anemia 

(D) Pernicious anemia  

32. Predominate is used to treat which of the following condition 

(A) Hyperglycemia

(B) Organophos Phorus poisoning 

(C) Carbonate toxicity 

(D) Hypercalcemia  

33. Felicity’s syndrome is a complication of 

(A) Osteoarthritis 

(B) Rheumatoid arthritis  

(C) Osteoarthritis

(D) Myasthenia gravis 

34. For caring a client with ileostomy, which of the following has the highest priority?

(a) Providing relief from constipation

(b) Assisting client with self-care activities

(c) Maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance

(d) Minimizing odor formation

35. The nurse teaches the client how to instill nasal drops. Which of the following techniques are correct?

(a) The client uses sterile techniques while handling the dropper

(b) The client blows the nose gently before instilling drops

(c) The client uses a new dropper for each instillation

(d) The client sits in a semi-flower’s position for instillation


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36. A client with chronic pancreatitis should be monitored closely for the development of which of the following disorder?

(a) Cholelithiasis

(b) Hepatitis

(c) Irritable bowel syndrome

(d) Diabetes mellitus

37. A client is admitted to the hospital with diagnosis of renal calculi. He is experiencing severe flank pain and nausea. His temperature is 100.6o F. Which of the following would be a priority action?

(a) Prevention of urinary tract infection

(b) Alleviation of pain

(c) Alleviation of nausea

(d) Maintenance of fluid and electrolyte balance

38. Assessment of the diabetic client for common complications should always include examination of

(A) Abdomen 

(B) Lymph nodes 

(C) Pharynx 

(D) Eyes 

39.  A client with pneumonia has a temperature ranging between 101o and 102o F and periods of diaphoresis. Based on this information which of the following nursing interventions would be a priority?

(a) Maintain complete bed rest

(b) Administer oxygen

(c) Provide frequent lines changes

(d) Provide fluid intake adequately

40.  A client is admitted to the hospital after vomiting blood and is diagnosed with a bleeding duodenal ulcer. Later, client develops a sudden, sharp pain in the midepigastric region along with a rigid abdomen. There clinical manifestations most likely indicates

(a) An intestinal obstruction has developed

(b) Additional ulcers have developed

(c) The esophagus has become inflamed

(d) The ulcer has perforated



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41. The nurse should teach the diabetic client that which of the following is the most common symptom of hypoglycemia

(a) Nervousness

(b) Anorexia

(c) Kassmaul’s respiration

(d) Brady cardia

42. For caring a client with ileostomy, which of the following has the highest priority?

(a) Providing relief from constipation

(b) Assisting client with self-care activities

(c) Maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance

(d) Minimizing odor formation

43. Ivan Pavlov is associated with 

(A) Needs theory 

(B) Neurotransmitters 

(C) Classical conditioning 

(D) Both A and B  

44. Deficiency of serotonin causes 

(A) Mania 

(B) Depression 

(C) Mental retardation 

(D) Amnesia  

45. Which among the following is a not type of marriage 

(A) Endogamy 

(B) Exogamy 

(C) Epigamic 

(D) Polygamy 



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46. Which of the following is affected by Kawasaki disease 

(A) Lungs 

(B) Joints 

(C) Coronary arteries  

(D) Kidneys

47. A client with pneumonia has a temperature ranging between 101o and 102o F and periods of diaphoresis. Based on this information which of the following nursing interventions would be a priority?

(a) Maintain complete bed rest

(b) Administer oxygen

(c) Provide frequent lines changes

(d) Provide fluid intake adequately

48. What is another name for Otis External?

(A) Swimmer’s ear 

(B) Plumber’s ear 

(C) Miner’s 

(D) Electrician’s ear  

49. A client is admitted to the hospital with diagnosis of renal calculi. He is experiencing severe flank pain and nausea. His temperature is 100.6o F. Which of the following would be a priority action?

(a) Prevention of urinary tract infection

(b) Alleviation of pain

(c) Alleviation of nausea

(d) Maintenance of fluid and electrolyte balance

50. Aspirin is administered to a client experiencing MI because of its

(a) Antipyretic action

(b) Antithrombotic action

(c) Antiplatelet action

(d) Analgesic action


UPPSC Staff Nurse Previous Year Paper


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Staff Nurse (Insurance Medical Service) Previous Question Paper Exam Held on 17-1-2004, Staff Nurse Previous PSC Question Paper - Solved 3/2011 and Previous ESI Staff Nurse Question Paper - Solved - May 2012 






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