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SBI
& ITS Associates Bank PO Exam 2010 Solved Question Paper: A Valuable Resource
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·
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SBI Associates Bank P.O Exams Question Paper 2012
Topics
SBI
and SBT Associate Banks English, Verbal Ability General Awareness, Marketing
Aptitude Questions for Practice, SBT and SBI Previous Years Solved Question
Papers, SBT and SBI Solved Question Papers of Aptitude, Data Interpretation, Data
Analysis, Reasoning Questions with Answers, SBT and SBI Whole Questions for
Practice
SBI Associates Bank P.O Exams
Directions
(1 -15): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given
below it. Certain words/expressions are given in bold in the passage to help
you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Radically
changing monsoon patterns, reduction in the winter rice harvest and a quantum
increase in respiratory diseasesall part of the environmental doomsday scenario
which is reportedly playing out in South Asia. According to a United Nations
Environment Programme report, a deadly threekm deep blanket of pollution
comprising a fearsome cocktail of ash. acids, aerosols and other particles has
enveloped this region. For India, already struggling to cope with a drought^the
implications of this are devastating and further crop failure will amount to a
life and death question for many Indians. The increase in premature deaths will
have adverse social and economic consequences and a rise in morbidities will
place an unbearable burden on our crumbling health system. And there is no one
to blame but ourselves. Both official and corporate India has always been
allergic to any mention of clean technology. Most mechanical two wheelers roll
off the assembly line without proper pollution control system. little effort is
made for R & D on simple technologies, which could make a vital difference
to people's lives and the en-vironment .
However,
while there is no denying that South Asia must clean up its act, skeptics might
question the timing of the haze report. The Kyoto meet on climate change is
just two weeks away and the Stage is set for the usual battle between the
developing world and the West, particularly the U.S. President Mr. Bush has
adamantly refused to sign any protocol, which would mean a change in American
consumption level. U.N. environment report will likely find a place in the U.S.
arsenal as it plants an accusing finger towards controls like India and China.
Yet the U.S. can hardly deny its own dubious role in the matter of erasing
trading quotas. Richer countries can simply buy up excess credits from poorer
countries and continue to pollute. Rather than try to get the better of developing
countries, who undoubtedly have taken up environmental shortcuts in their bid
to catch up with the West, the U.S. should take a look at the environmental
profligacy, which is going on within. From opening up virgin territories for
oil exploration to relaxing the standards for drinking water, Mr. Bush's
policies are not exactly beneficial, not even to America's interests. We
realize that we are all in this together and that pollution anywhere should be
a global concern otherwise there will only be more tunnels at the end of the
tunnel.
1.
Both official and corporate India is allergic to:
(1)
failure of monsoon
(2)
poverty and inequality
(3)
slowdown in industrial production
(4)
mention of clean technology (Ans)
(5)
crop failure
2.
Which, according to the passage. Is a life and death question to many Indians?
(1)
Increase in respiratory diseases
(2)
Use of clean technology
(3)
Thick blanket of pollution over the region
(4)
Failure in crops (Ans)
(5)
Dwindling agricultural yield
3.
If the rate of premature deaths increases it will:
(1)
exert added burden on our crumbling economy
(2)
have adverse social and economic consequences (Ans)
(3)
make positive effect on our efforts to control population
(4)
have less job aspirants in the ' society
(5)
have healthy effect on our economy
4.
Choose the word which is SIMILAR in meaning to the word 'profligacy' as used in
the passage.
(1)
wastefulness (Ans)
(2)
conservation
(3)
upliftmeht
(4)
criticality
(5)
denouncement
Explanations:
The meaning of the word Profligacy (Noun) is using money, time, materials etc
in a careless way; wastefulness. Hence, profligacy and wastefulness are
synonymous,
5.
According to the passage, India cannot tolerate any further:
(1)
crop failure (Ans)
(2)
deterioration of health care system
(3)
increase in respiratory diseases
(4)
proliferation of nuclear devices
(5)
social and economic consequences
6.
According to the passage, two wheeler industries is not adequately concerned
about
(1)
passenger safety on the roads
(2)
life cover insurance of the vehicle owners
(3)
pollution control system In the vehicles (Ans)
(4)
rising cost of the two wheelers
(5)
rising cost of the petrol in the country
7.
What could be the reason behind timing of the haze report just before the Kyoto
meet, as indicated in the passage ?
(1)
United Nations is working handinglove with U.S.
(2)
Organizers of the forthcoming meet to teach a lesson to the U.S.
(3)
Drawing attentions of the world towards devastating effects of environment
degradation.
(4)
U.S. wants to use it as a handle against the developing countries in the
forthcoming meet (Ans)
(5)
The meet is a part of political agenda of the U.N.
8.
Choose the word which is SIMILAR in meaning to the word 'allergic' as used in
the passage.
(1)
liking
(2)
passionate
(3)
possessive
(4)
crumbling
(5)
repugnant
Explanations:
The word Allergic (Adjective) means having an allergy to some thing: having
strong dislike of something/ somebody; a medical condition that causes you to
react badly or feel ill or sick when you eat or touch a particular substance.
Look
at the sentence: I like cats but unfortunately I am allergic to them. You could
see he was allergic to housework. Out of the given alternatives repugnant
(Adjective) means making you feel strong dislike or disgust.
Look
at the sentence : The idea of eating meat was repugnant to her. We found his
suggestion absolutely repugnant. Hence, repugnant and allergic are synonymous.
9.
Which of the following is the indication of environmental degradation in South
Asia?
(1)
Social and economic inequality
(2)
Crumbling health care system
(3)
Inadequate pollution control system
(4)
Overemphasis on technology
(5)
Radically changing monsoon pattern (Ans)
10.
What must we realize, according to the passage?
(1)
No country should show superiority over other countries
(2)
U.N. is putting in hard efforts in the direction of pollution control
(3)
All countries must join hands in fighting pollution (Ans)
(4)
Nobody should travel through tunnel to avoid health hazards
(5)
We all must strive hard to increase agricultural production
11.
Which of the following finds place in the United Nations Environment Programme
Report?
(1)
Changing monsoon patterns
(2)
Substantial increase in respiratory diseases
(3)
A serious cover of pollution over the region (Ans)
(4)
Reduction in winter rice harvest
(5)
None of these
12.
Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE in the context of the passage?
(1)
U.N. environment report blames countries like India and China
(2)
Developing countries have taken environment shortcuts in their bid to catch up
with the West.
(3)
U.S. is also to be blamed for environmental degradation and pollution
(4)
Indians cannot afford to have any further crop failure
(5)
U.S. has tightened safety standards for drinking water (Ans)
13.
According to the passage, Kyoto meet is going to witness
(1)
calm and dispassionate thinking on the issue of pollution control
(2)
a blaming game between developed and developing countries (Ans)
(3)
refusal of U.N. to work as arbitrator
(4)
U.S. agreeing to look at the issue of lowering its consumption
(5)
countries agreeing for higher monetary allocation to R & D.
14.
Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word 'dubious' as used
in the passage?
(1)
unquestionable (Ans)
(2)
dissimilar
(3)
illegal
(4)
antisocial
(5)
innovative
Explanations:
The word Dubious (Adjective) means not certain and slightly suspicious about
something: suspicious, doubtful.
Look
at the sentence: I was rather dubious about the whole idea. They indulged in
some highly dubious business practices to obtain their current position in the
market. Hence, dubious and unquestionable are antonymous.
15.
Choose the word which is the MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word 'morbidity'
as used in the passage.
(1)
powerfulness
(2)
healthiness (Ans)
(3)
softness
(4)
acuteness
(5)
purposeful
Explanations:
The word Morbidity (Noun) means a strong interest in sad or unpleasant things,
especially disease or death. Hence, morbidity and healthiness are antonymous.
Directions
(1625): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace
the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence
grammatically cor; rect. if the sentence is correct as it is and 'No correction
is required', mark (5) as the answer.
16.
The executive had received several warnings before been sus¬pended finally for
his lack of punctuality.
(1)
after suspension
(2)
after suspending
(3)
before suspended
(4)
before being suspended (Ans)
(5)
No correction required
Explanations:
.......'Before being suspended' (Participle) should be used in place of 'before
been suspended'. Here, 'been' has been wrongly used.
17.
Accordingly to the senior partner's instructions they have remitted the amount
to your bankers.
(1)
According on
(2)
On accord of
(3)
In accordance with (Ans)
(4)
Accordingly as
(5)
No correction required
Explanations:
We should use 'according to' or 'in accordance' with in place of 'according to'
'According to' means as stated or reported by somebody/ something: following,
agreeing with or depending on something Look at its use in the sentence: You
have been six times according to out records. The salary will be fixed
according to qualifications and experience
18.
The museum has planned for a ten day exhibition showcasing the ' rich culture
of the South.
(1)
plan for
(2)
has been planning
(3)
planning on
(4)
have a plan
(5)
No correction required (Ans)
19.
Since the collapse of his business he has become frequent depressed and
addicted to alcohol.
(1)
frequent depression and addicted for
(2)
frequently depress and addict to
(3)
frequently depressing and addicted on
(4)
frequently depressed and addicted .to (Ans)
(5)
No correction required
Explanations:
The word 'frequent' is an adjective whereas depressed is a Verb. Hence, the
word 'frequently' (Adverb) should be used.
20.
The government will refrain from intervening in the dispute except the company
requests it to do so.
(1)
with the dispute except
(2)
in the dispute unless (Ans)
(3)
to the dispute excepting
(4)
in the dispute without
(5)
No correction required
Explanations:
.........In the dispute unless' should be used in place of in the dispute
except' as the sense of sentence is conditional.
21.
The issue of employee pension schemes will come to the Governing Board meeting
next week.
(1)
shall come about in
(2)
will come before
(3)
will come up at (4> shall come to (Ans)
(5)
No correction required
Explanations:
'....... will come up at' should be used.
22.
The steep rise in oil prices is the reason on account of which we must conserve
energy.
(1)
the reason (Ans)
(2)
the reason for
(3)
the reason because
(4)
the reason to
(5)
No correction required
Explanations:
The words 'reason' and 'on account of bear the some meaning. Hence, both can be
used independently. not together.
23.
Several customers have requested that the branch timings on weekdays should be
changed to reduce inconvenience.
(1)
is changed (2) have changed
(3)
shall change
(4)
can change
(5)
No correction required (Ans)
24.
Having failed to plan their political campaign in advance the party members got
each other into a mess.
(1)
get one another
(2)
got themselves (Ans)
(3)
have got anyone
(4)
has got everyone
(5)
No correction required
Explanations:
It is to be noted that 'each other' is used between two persons. Hence, got
themselves' should be used in place of 'got each other'.
25.
Despite his youth he has the reputation of being one of the most efficient
administrators ‘in the organization.
(1)
from the efficient
(2)
off the more efficient
(3)
of the efficient in
(4)
among the most efficiently of
(5)
No correction required (Ans)
Directions
(26 - 30): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical
error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence, the number
of that part is the answer. If there is no error, mark (5). (Ignore errors of
punctuation, if any)
26.
Villagers want to build (l)/a bridge crossed the river (2) /to connect their
village (3) /to the highway. (4)/ No error (5)
Explanations:
The use of the word 'crossed' is incorrect. Hence Use 'across in place of
'crossed'.
(Ans:
2 )
27.
He has invited one (1)/ of his biggest business rivals (2)/ to his office (3) /
to discuss the merger.(4)/ No error (5)
(Ans:
5)
28.
To avoid any interruption (1)/ during the presentation (2)/ he checked all the
system (3)/ the previous day. (4)/ No error (5)
(Ans:
4)
29.
It is the government (1)/ responsibility to provide (2)/ athletes with the
necessary facilities (3)/ for their training. (4)/ No error (5)
Explanations:
It is the government's ....... is the correct usage.
(Ans
: 1)
30.
The management is (1)/ not willing to (2)/ make no concession (3)/ to the
employee's demands. (4)/ No error (5)
Explanations:
'Make announces ion' is the correct usage.
(Ans:
3)
Directions
(31 - 35): In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below
each sentence, there are five pairs of words denoted by numbers (1), (2),(3).
(4) and (5). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks In the
sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence meaningfully complete.
(36-40)
ANS: The meaningful paragraph should be: To day there is growing concern about
global warming energy and water crises. To address these issues....
31.
With the merger, the newly formed company has come to _______the country's
_______into a modern economy.
(1)
lead — acceptance
(2)
exemplify — transformation
(3)
promote — development (Ans)
(4)
reflect — transfer
(5)
stall — exchange
32.
_____governance does not encourage respect for authority and ______ the
condition of the exploited.
(1)
Frail — enhance
(2)
Lack — recognizes
(3)
Inadequate — heeds. .
(4)
Weak — accentuates
(5)
Effectual — alleviate (Ans)
33.
Although businesses are less ________ than they were before liberalization some
parts of the economy remain to restrictions.
(1)
fettered — subject (Ans)
(2)
shunned — accessible
(3)
ignored — vulnerable
(4)
restrict — expose
(5)
defunct — resistant
34.
Today the city ________ free housing and hospitals and clean streets has become
the ______ of the entire country.
(1)
offers — example
(2)
known — pride
(3)
with — envy
(4)
providing — challenge (Ans)
(5)
supplies — dream
35.
Since its launch, the computer programme has_______for two thirds of all
software sales_______
(1)
allowed — legally
(2)
plans — globally
(3)
provided — finally
(4)
competed — demand
(5)
accounted — domestically (Ans)
Directions
(3640): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F)
in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the
questions given below them.
(A)
To address these issues Indian corporates are increasingly tuning ecofriendly.
(B)
At present however there are only a dozen green buildings in the private
sector.
(C)
However though an ecofriendly building may cost more upfront however it is cost
effective because of lower operating costs in the long run.
(D)
Today there is growing concern about global warming, energy and water crises.
(E)
The reason is the construction cost of an ecofriendly building is 15% to 20%
more than putting up a conventional building.
(F)
Planting trees, using energy saving lighting systems and constructing
ecofriendly green buildings are some of the measures they are taking.
36.
Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(D
A
(2)
B
(3)
C
(4)
D (Ans)
(5)
E
37.
Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(1)
A (Ans)
(2)
C
(3)
D
(4)
E
(5)F
38.
Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(DB
'
(2)D
(3)
C
(4)
E
(5)
F (Ans)
39.
Which of the following will be the FDTTH sentence after rearrangement?
(DC
(2)D
(3)
E (Ans)
(4)
F
(5)
A
40.
Which of the following will be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
(D
B
(2)
C (Ans)
(3)
D
(4)
E
(5)
F
Directions
(4150): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been
numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five
words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the
appropriate word in each case.
Mass
migration has produced a huge world wide economy of its own which has (4_D so
fast during the past few years that the figures have (42) experts. Last year
remittances sent home by migrants were expected to (431 $232 billion according
to the World Bank which (44) these figures. (45) though the flow of remittances
is to alleviate the plight of the migrant's family it cannot on its own lift
entire nations out of poverty. Those who study the (46) of remittances argue
that the money allows poor countries to put off basic decisions of economic
management like (47) their tax collection systems and building schools.
Remittances to poor countries can also (48) the fact that they do not produce
much at home. The challenge is now to find programmes that (49) the benefits of
remitted cash while (50) some of its downside.
41.
(1) accelerated (Ans)
(2)
grew
(3)
expand
(4)
increase
(5)
escalating
42.
(1)
(2)
encouraged
(3)
astonished (Ans)
(4)convinced
(5)
disturb
43.
(1) rise
(2)
represent
(3)
project
(4)
exceed (Ans)
(5)
recover
44.
(1) record
(2)
tracks (Ans)
(3)
estimat
(4)
reporte
(5)
surveys
45.
(1) detrimental
(2)
minor
(3)
profuse
(4)
benefited
(5)
vital (Ans)
46.
(1) circumstance
(2)
profit
(3)
impact (Ans)
(4)
status
(5)
quality
47.
(1) declaring
(2)
established
(3)
measuring
(4)
reforming (Ans)
(5)
govern
48.
(l) mask (Ans)
(2)
hid
(3)
review
(4)
display
(5)
supported
49.
(1) launch
(2)
predict
(3)
optimum
(4)
appreciate
(5)
maximize (Ans)
50.
(1) augmenting
(2)
avoiding (Ans)
(3)
suspend
(4)
projects
(5)
detracting
GENERAL AWARENESS,
MARKETING & COMPUTER
51.
The Criminal Procedure Code (Amendment) Act, 2008 came into effect on December
31, 2009. It incorporates the recommendations of to prevent overcrowding of
jails with under trials.
a.
The Law Commission
b.
The Justice Mallmath Committee's report
c.
The guidelines issued by the Supreme Court
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
(1)
All of the above (Ans)
(2)
Only a (3) Only b
(4)
Both b and c
(5)
Both a and b
52.__on
December 31, 2009, became the first Indian woman to ski to the South Pole when
she crossed a 900 km Antarctic ice trek to reach the South Pole to mark the
60th anniversary of the founding of the Commonwealth.
(1)
AvaniMathur
(2)
Deepika Sharma
(3)
Amita Chauhan
(4)
Reena Kaushal (Ans)
(5)
MadhumitaSolanki
53.
The Indian Science Award, instituted by the Department of Science and
Technology of the Union government, was given by Prime Minister Manmohan Singh
to C. R Rao, statistician, at the 97th Indian Science Congress in_on January 3,
2010.
(1)
Kochi
(2)
Chennai
(3)
Thiruvananthapuram (Ans)
(4)
Pune
(5)
Kolkata
54.
New Year began on a bloody note in Pakistan as seventyfive people were killed
and over 50 injured in Shah Hasan Khan, near Lakki Marwat in the _ district of
the North Western Frontier Province.
(1)
Chitral
(2)
Dera Ismail
(3)
Bannu (Ans)
(4)
Peshawar
(5)
Hamirpur
55.
Russia and the United States, on _, 2009, missed the deadline to sign a
replacement to the Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (START) which expired at
midnight.
(1)
December 1
(2)
December 5 (Ans)
(3)
December 25
(4)
December 31
(5)
December 14
56.
The Mojave Desert, on December 7,2009, played host to a very modern spectacle
when Sir Richard Branson unveiled Virgin Galactic's Space Ship Two for carrying
passengers to the brink of space. The Mojave Desert is cov-ered the most in_.
(1)
Utah
(2)
California (Ans)
(3)
Nevada
(4)
Arizona
(5)
None of the above
57.
The Supreme Court of which of the following countries, on January 3. 2010,
ratified a 25year prison sentence for the former President, Alberto Fujimori?
(1)
Peru (Ans)
(2)
Chile
(3)
South Korea
(4)
Taiwan ^
(5)
Cambodia
58.
The Rajya Sabha on December 1, 2009, unanimously approved, by voice vote, the
Workmen's Compensation (Amendment) Bill, 2009. Which of the following is/
I
are correct regarding the Bill?
a.
It seeks to give higher compensation to workers and their families in the event
of injury or death.
b.
It empowers the Centre to enhance the compensation and funeral expenses, by
notification, from time to time.
c.
It empowers the government to specify, by notification, monthly wages for an
employee. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(1)
Only a
(2)
Only b
(3)
Only c
(4)
All of the above (Ans)
(5)
None of these
59.
Multilateral funding agency of the Asian Development Bank, on December 3, 2009,
approved 200million dollar loan to finance a road project in_.
(1)
Orissa
(2)
Jharkhand (Ans)
(3)
Bihar
(4)
West Bengal
(5)
Chhattisgarh
60.
Consider the following statements related to the selection of Vihaan Networks
Ltd., a Shyam Group company, as "Technology Pioneers2010."
a.
It was selected by the World Economic Forum as a pioneer.
b.
It was chosen for its innovative and pioneering work in developing solarpowered
mobile phone base stations WorldGSM — foi use in rural areas.
c.
Vihaan Networks is the only company to have found a way ol building sustainable
phone networks for 3 billion people in rural areas.
Which
of the statements giver above is/are not correct? Selecl the correct answer
using th< codes given below:
(1)
Only a
(2)
Both b and c
(3)
Both a and b
(4)
All of the above
(5)
None of these (Ans)
61.
The Union Cabinet on Decembei 10, 2009, approved amendments to the Energy
Conservation Act _______, to introduce the system o issuing energy saving certificate!
to be traded in the domestic mar ket.
(1)
2008
(2)
2006
(3)
2004
(4)
2002
(5)
2001 (Ans)
62.
The Haryana Power Generation Corporation, on December 24, 2009, became the
first State sector power generation utility in the country to get certified for
its power stations at Yamunanagar and Panipat and corporate office at
Panchkula.
a.
ISO: 9001
b.
ISO: 14001
c.
OHSAS: 18001
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
(1)
All of the above (Ans)
(2)
Both a and c
(3)
Both a and b
(4)
Both b and c
(5)
None of these
63.
ONGC. on December 1, 2009, signed agreements to pick up____per cent interest in
Phase 12 of the gigantic South Pars gas field and get_per cent of Iran LNG's
project that will convert the gas into liquefied natural gas for exports.
(1)
20,40
(2)
30,30
(3)
40. 20 (Ans)
(4)
50. JP
(5)
15. 45
64.
Reliance Exploration and Production DMCC a wholly owned subsidiary of Reliance
Industries Ltd. (RIL), and Ecopetrol, on December 4, 2009. signed the Farmout
Agreements, for Borojo_in Colombia.
(1)
North Block 42
(2)
South Block 43
(3)
West Block 44
(4)
Only 1 and 2 (Ans)
(5)
None of these
65.
Japan's government, on December 8, 2009, unveiled $81 billion of new stimulus
spending to keep the world's_biggest economy from lurching back into recession.
(1)
Second (Ans)
(2)
Third
(3)
Fourth
(4)
Fifth
(5)
Sixth
66.
Reliance Communications, on December 12, 2009, bagged mGovernance
infrastructure development contracts in_circles to offer integration of mobile
technology to seamlessly link various government departments to generate
information systems.
(1)
Kerala
(2)
Maharashtra
(3)
Mumbai
(4)
All of the above (Ans)
(5)
Only 2 and 3
67.
The Central Government, on December 18. 2009, pegged the country's GDP (gross
domestic product) growth for the current fiscal at over_per cent.
(1)
7.25
(2)
7.45
(3)
7.55
(4)
7.75 (Ans)
(5)
8.25
68.
Which of the following major economy related development(s) took place on
December 22, 2009?
a.
An agreement was reached between the oil marketing companies and millers on the
price of ethanol.
b.
RIL announce a third successive gas discovery in the D3 deepsea block in the
KrishnaGodavari basin.
c.
Central Government inks two loan agreements with the Asian Development Bank for
funding the country's infrastructure projects.
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
(1)
Both a and b
(2)
Both a and c
(3)
All of the above (Ans)
(4)
Both b and c
(5)
None of these
69.
On which recent date did the Bombay Stock Exchange sensitive index, Sensex, the
barometer of domestic stock market, enter its Silver Jubilee year?
(1)
December 31, 2009
(2)
December 1, 2009
(3)
January 2, 2010 (Ans)
(4)
January 1, 2010
(5)
January 4, 2010
70.
India, on January 1, 2010, liberalised its trade with_by slashing duties on
several products like seafood, chemicals and apparel among others.
(1)
South Korea
(2)
Singapore
(3)
Thailand
(4)
Malaysia
(5)
All of the above (Ans)
71.
As per the data released by the Indian Institute of Foreign Trade on January 1,
2010, after a gap of 13 months, exports turned positive in November 2009.
registering _ per cent growth at $13.19 billion against $11.16billion in
November 200809.
(1)
11.5
(2)
18.2 (Ans)
(3)
16.6
(4)
17.5
(5)
19.4
72.
SEBI. on December 31. 2009, allowed _to accept application supported blocked amount
(ASBAs) to enable better participation by corporate investors and high networth
individuals (HINs) in initial public offerings or rights issues.
(1)
State Bank of India
(2)
ICICI Bank
(3)
14 banks
(4)
All of the above (Ans)
(5)
None of these
73.
Popular Assamese storyteller, novelist, lyricist and playwright, _, was chosen
for the 20th Assam Valley Literary Award for the year 2009 for his literary
excellence on December 31, 2009.
(1)
IqbalHusain
(2)
ImranShah (Ans)
(3)
Abhijit Ghosal
(4)
Tapan Bhattacharjee
(5)
MrinalSanyal
74.
Who among the following Britons of Indian origin were conferred with knighthood
by Queen Elizabeth of England on December 31, 2009?
a.
Mota Singh
b.
Paramjit Singh Bassi
c.
Gumain Singh
Select
the correct answer using the codes given below:
(1)
All of the above
(2)
Both a and b (Ans)
(3)
Both a and c
(4)
Both b and c
(5)
Only b
75.
Who among the following was/ were conferred the 2009 Karmaveer Puraskar on
December 2, 2009?
(1)
K. Srinath Reddy
(2)
Manju Bharat Ram
(3)
RohiniNilekaniandTarunTejpal
(4)
Gregory Roberts
(5)
All of the above (Ans)
76.
Scientist Yash Pal and Project Director of Chandrayaan1 M. Annadurai were
conferred with the H.K. Firodia awards for 2009 in Pune on December 23, 2009.
Who among the following was/ were the early recipients?
(1)
APJ Abdul Kalam & Vijay Bhatkar
(2)
Anil Kakodkar and Raghunath Mashelkar
(3)
M.S. Swaminathan, KKasturirangan and R. Chidambaram
(4)
CNR Rao, Obaid Siddiqi and P N Tandon
(5)
All of the above (Ans)
77.
The Union Government, on December 30, 2009, decided to come up with a National
Consumer Policy to_.
a.
Ensure uniform national and international standards in the various arms of the
Central and State governments
b.
Ensure uniform national and in . temational standards in the regulatory bodies
and on consumer fora
c.
To lay down the guiding principles of complaint resolution.
Which
of the statements given above is/are correct? Select the correct answer using
the codes given below:
(1)
Both a and b
(2)
Only b
(3)
Only c
(4)
All of the above (Ans)
(5)
None of these
78.
Which state Government, on January 1, 2010, imposed a ban on holding strike in
all power corporations under energy department for six months in public
interest?
(1)
Delhi
(2)
Uttar Pradesh (Ans)
(3)
West Bengal
(4)
Andhra Pradesh
(5)
Bihar
79.
A work by Edgar Degas, called Les Choristes (The Chorus), was stolen from Musee
Cantini, an exhibition in_, by thieves on December 31, 2009
(1)
Marseille (Ans)
(2)
Vienna
(3)
Lyon
(4)
Paris
(5)
Clipperton Island
80.
Britain, on January 2, 2010, called a summit of world leaders in London later
in January 2010 to discuss the terror threat posed by _, seen as new breeding
ground(s) for alQaeda linked extremists.
(1)
Nigeria
(2)
Yemen (Ans)
(3)
Syria
(4)
Lebanon
(5)
All of the above
81.
Valueadded services means
(1)
giving full value for money
(2)
better value for better price
(3)
costlier service
(4)
additional service (Ans)
(5)
All of these
82.
"POS" means (in marketing)
(1)
Preparation for Sales
(2)
Point of Superiority
(3)
Point of Sales (Ans)
(4)
Primary Outlook of Salesman
(5)
Position of Sales
83.
Effective Marketing helps in
(1)
boosting the purchases
(2)
boosting the sales (Ans)
f
(3) diversified business'
(4)
realisation of dreams
(5)
All of these
84.
A 'Buyer's Market' means
(1)
buyers are also sellers
(2)
sellers are also buyers
(3)
there are not sellers
(4)
demand exceeds supply
(5)
supply exceeds demand (Ans)
85.
The sequence of a sales process is
(1)
a call, a lead, presentation and sale
(2)
a lead, a call, presentation and sale (Ans)
(3)
presentation, sale, lead and call
(4)
presentation, lead, sale and call
(5)
sale, call, lead and presentation
86.
A presentation means
(1)
display of products
(2)
explaining the utility of products (Ans)
(3)
a gift
(4)
display of communication skills
(5)
All of these
87.
A 'lead' means
(1)
a buyer
(2)
a seller
(3)
a company intending to sell its products
(4)
a prospective buyer (Ans)
(5)
a disinterested buyer
88.
'Benchmark'means
(1)
products line up on bench
(2)
salesmen sitting on a bench
(3)
set standards^ (Ans)
(4)
marks on a bench
(5)
None of these
89.
'Customisation' means
(1)
customers'personal accounts
(2)
customers selling goods
(3)
special products for each customer (Ans)
(4)
better relations'
(5)
All of these
90.
Customer Retention means
(1)
retaining the customers at the Bank for the full day
(2)
quick disposal
(3)
customers dealing with the same bank for a long time (Ans)
(4)
better standards
(5)
All of these
91.
This component is required to process data into information and consists of
integrated circuits.
(1)
Hard disk
(2)
RAM
(3)
CPU (Ans)
(4)
ROM
(5)
None of these
92.
One advantage of dialup Internet access is
(1)
it utilizes broadband technology
(2)
it utilizes existing telephone service (Ans)
(3)
it uses a router for security
(4)
modem speeds are very fast
(5)
None of these
93.
What is backup?
(1)
Adding more components to your network
(2)
Protecting data by copying it from the original source to a defect destination
(Ans)
(3)
Filtering old data from the new data
(4)
Accessing data on tape
(5)
None of these
94.
Network components are connected to the same cable in the— — topology.
(l)
star (Ans)
(2)
ring
(3)
bus
(4)
mesh
(5)
mixed
95.
Two or more computers connected to each other for sharing information form a
(1)
network (Ans)
(2)
router
(3)
server
(4)
tunnel
(5)
pipeline
96.
A computer checks theof user names and passwords for a match before granting
access.
(1)
website
(2)
network
(3)
backup file
(4)
database (Ans)
(5)
None of these
97.
Computers that are portable and convenient for users who travel are known as
(1)
supercomputers
(2)
Laptops (Ans)
(3)
mini computers
(4)
file servers
(5)
None of these
98.
What is the term for unsolicited email ?
(1)
newsgroup
(2)
usenet
(3)
backbone
(4)
flaming
(5)
spam (Ans)
99.
What type of program controls the various computer parts and allows the user to
interact with the computer ?
(1)
Utility software (Ans)
(2)
Operating system
(3)
Word processing software
(4)
Database program
(5)
None of these
100.
Each cell in a Microsoft Office Excel document is referred to by its cell
address, which is the —.
(1)
cell's column label
(2)
cell's column label and worksheet tab name
(3)
cell's row label
(4)
cell's row and column labels (Ans)
(5)
None of these
SBI & ITS Associates Bank PO Exam 2010 Solved Question Paper
IBPS Bank PO/MT CWE
Solved Paper 2012
Exam Date 17/06/2012
Section I Reasoning
Directions (Q. No. 1-4) Study the
following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A word and number arrangement
machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following
a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and
rearrangement. {All the numbers are two digits numbers)
Input tall 48 13 rise alt 99 76 32
wise jar high 28 56 barn
Step I 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 barn alt
Step II 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 56 alt barn
Step III 32 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 wise jar 56 alt barn high
Step IV 48 32 28 13 tall rise 99 76 wise 56 alt barn high jar
Step V 56 48 32 28 13 tall 99 76 wise alt barn high jar rise
Step VI 76 56 48 32 28 13 99 wise alt barn high jar rise tall
Step VII 99 76 56 48 32 28 13 alt barn high jar rise tall wise
and Step VII is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is
obtained.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following
questions the appropriate step for the given input. Input 84 why sit 14 32 not
best ink feet 51 27 vain 68 92 {All the numbers are two digits numbers)
1. Which step number is the following
output?
32 27 14 84 why sit not 51 vain 92 68 feet best ink
(1) Step V
(2) Step VI
(3) Step IV
(4) Step III
(5) There is no such step
2. Which word/number would be at 5th
position from the right in Step V?
(1)14
(2)92
(3) feet
(4) best
(5) why
3. How many elements (words or numbers)
are there between ‘feet’ and ’32’ as they appear in the last step of the
output?
(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five
(5) Seven
4. Which of the following represents
the position of ‘why’ in the fourth step?
(1) Eighth from the left
(2) Fifth from the right
(3) Sixth from the left
(4) Fifth from the left
(5) Seventh from the left
Directions (Q. Nos. 5-11) Study the following information
carefully and answer the given questions.
* A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre but
not necessarily in the same order.
* B sits second to left of H’s husband. No female is an immediate neighbour of
B.
* D’s daughter sits second to right of F. F is the sister of G. F is not an
immediate neighbour of H’s husband.
* Only one person sits between A and F. A is the father of G. H’s brother D
sits to the immediate left of H’s mother. Only one person sits between H’s
mother and E.
* Only one person sits between H and G. G is the mother of C. G is not an
immediate neighbour of E.
5. What is position of A with respect
to his mother-in-law?
(1) Immediate left
(2) Third to the right
(3) Third to the left
(4) Second to the right
(5) Fourth to the left
6. Who amongst the following is
D’s daughter?
(1) B
(2) C
(3) E
(4) G
(5) H
7. What is the position of A with
respect to his grandchild?
(1) Immediate right
(2) Third to the right
(3) Third to the left
(4) Second to the left
(5) Fourth to the left
8. How many people sit between G and
her uncle?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
(5) More than four
9. Four of the following five are alike
in a certain way based on the given information and so form a group. Which is
the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) F
(2) C
(3) E
(4) H
(5) G
10. Which of the following is true with
respect to the given seating arrangement?
(1) C is the cousin of E
(2) H and H’s husband are immediate neighbours of each other
(3) No female is an immediate neighbour of C
(4) H sits third to left of her daughter
(5) B is the mother of H
11. Who sits to the immediate left of C?
(1) F’s grandmother
(2) G’s son
(3) D’s mother-in-law
(4) A
(5) G
Directions (Q. Nos. 12-18) In each group of questions below are
two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to
take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from
commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the two/three statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer
(1) if only conclusion I follows
(2) if only conclusion II follows
(3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
(4) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
(5) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow
12. Statements: Some exams are tests. No exam is a
question.
Conclusions
I. No question is a test.
II. Some tests are definitely not exams.
13.-14 Statements: All forces are energies. All
energies are powers. No power is heat.
Conclusions:
I. Some forces are definitely not powers.
II. No heat is force.
14. Conclusions
I. No energy is heat.
II. Some forces being heat is a possibility.
15-16. Statements: No note is a coin. Some coins are
metals. All plastics are notes.
Conclusions:
I. No coin is plastic.
II. All plastics being metals is a possibility-
16. Conclusions
I. No metal is plastic.
II. All notes are plastics.
17. Statements Some symbols are figures. All
symbols are graphics.
No graphic is a picture.
Conclusions
I. Some graphics are figures.
II. No symbol is a picture.
18. Statements All vacancies are jobs. Some
jobs are occupations.
Conclusions
I. All vacancies are occupations.
II. All occupations being vacancies is a possibility.
Directions (Q.Nos. 19-21) Study the following
information carefully to answer the given questions Each of the six friends, A,
B, C, D, E and F scored different marks in an examination. C scored more than
only A and E. D scored less than only B. E did not score the least. The one who
scored the third highest marks scored 81 marks. E scored 62 marks.
19. Which of the following could
possibly be C’s score?
(1) 70
(2) 94
(3) 86
(4) 61
(5) 81
20. Which of the following is true with
respect to the given information?
(1) D’s score was definitely less than 60
(2) F scored the maximum marks
(3) Only two people scored more than C
(4) There is a possibility that B scored 79 marks
(5) None of the above is true
21. The person who scored the maximum,
scored 13 marks more than F’s marks. Which of the following can be D’s score?
(1) 94
(2) 60
(3) 89
(4) 78
(5) 81
Directions (Q.Nos. 22-29) Study the following information
carefully to answer the given questions
Eight persons from different banks viz. UCO Bank, Syndicate Bank, Canara Bank,
PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian Bank and Bank of Maharashtra
are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way
that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A, B, C and
D are seated and all of them are facing South. In row-2 P, Q, R and S are
seated and all of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating
arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
(All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of
seating as in the final arrangement)
* C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an
immediate neighbour of the person who faces the person from Bank of
Maharashtra.
* Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbour of
the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.
* The person from UCO Bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R
is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the
person from Bank of Maharashtra.
* Q faces the person from Dena Bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate
left of A.
* B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank
of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate Bank.
22. Which of the following is true
regarding A?
(1) The person from UCO Bank faces A
(2) The person from Bank of Maharashtra is an immediate neighbour of A
(3) A faces the person who sits second to right of R
(4) A is from Oriental Bank of Commerce
(5) A sits at one of the extreme ends of the line
23. Who is seated between R and
the person from PNB?
(1) The person from Oriental Bank of Commerce
(2) P
(3) Q
(4) The person from Syndicate bank
(5) S
24. Who amongst the following sit at
extreme ends of the rows?
(1) D and the person from PNB
(2) The person from Indian Bank and UCO Bank
(3) The person from Dena Bank and P
(4) The person from Syndicate Bank and D
(5) C, Q
25. Who amongst the following faces the
person from Bank of Maharashtra?
(1) The person from Indian Bank
(2) P
(3) R
(4) The person from Syndicate Bank
(5) The person from Canara Bank
26. P is related to Dena Bank in
the same way as B is related to PNB based on the given arrangement. To who
amongst the following is D related to, following the same pattern?
(1) Syndicate Bank
(2) Canara Bank
(3) Bank of Maharashtra
(4) Indian Bank
(5) Oriental Bank of Commerce
27. Four of the following five are
alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and thus form a
group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) Canara Bank
(2) R
(3) Syndicate Bank
(4) Q
(5) Oriental Bank of Commerce
28. Who amongst the following is from
Syndicate Bank?
(1) C
(2) R
(3) P
(4) D
(5) A
29. C is from which of the following
banks?
(1) Dena Bank
(2) Oriental Bank of Commerce
(3) UCO Bank
(4) Syndicate Bank
(5) Canara Bank
Directions (Q.Nos. 30-34) Each of the questions below consists
of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You
have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to
answer the question. Read all the three statements and
Give answer
(1) if the data in Statement I and II are sufficient to answer the question
while the data in Statement III are not required to answer the question
(2) if the data in Statement I and III are sufficient to answer the question,
while the data in Statement II are not required to answer the question
(3) if the data in Statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question,
while the data in Statement I are not required to answer the question
(4) if the data in either Statement I alone or Statement II alone or Statement
III alone are sufficient to answer the question
(5) if the data in all the Statements I, II and III together are necessary to
answer the question
30. Among six people P, Q, R, S, T and V
each lives on a different floor of a six storey building having six floors
numbered one to six (the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it, number
2 and so on and the topmost floor is numbered 6). Who lives on the topmost
floor?
I. There is only one floor between the floors on which R and Q live, P lives on
an even numbered floor.
II. T does not live on an even numbered floor. Q lives on an even numbered
floor. Q does not live on the topmost floor.
III. S lives on an odd numbered floor. There are two floors between the floors
on which S and P live. T lives on a floor immediately above R’s floor.
31. There are six letters W, A, R, S, N
and E. Is ‘ANSWER’ the word formed after performing the following operations
using these six letters only?
I. E is placed fourth to the right of A. S is not placed immediately next to
either A or E.
II. R is placed immediately next (either left or right) to E. W is placed
immediately next (either left or right) to S.
III. Both N and W are placed immediately next to S. The word does not begin
with R. A is not placed immediately next to W.
32. Point D is in which direction with
respect to Point B?
I. Point A is to the West of point B. Point C is to the North of point B. Point
D is to the South of point C.
II. Point G is to the South of point D. Point G is 4 m from point B. Point D is
9 m from point B.
III. Point A is to the West of point B. Point B is exactly midway between
points A and E. point F is to the South of point E. Point D is to the West of
point F.
33. How is ‘one’ coded in the code
language?
I. ‘one of its kind’ is coded as ‘zo pi ko fe’ and ‘in kind and cash’ is coded
as ‘ga to ru ko’
II. ‘its point for origin’ is coded as ‘ba le fe mi’ and ‘make a point clear’
is coded as ‘yu si mi de’
III. ‘make money and cash’ is coded as ‘to mi ru hy’ and ‘money of various
kind’ is coded as ‘qu ko zo hy’
34. Are all the four friends viz. A, B,
C and D, who are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre?
I. B sits second to right of D. D faces the centre. C sits to immediate right
of both B and D.
II. A sits to immediate left of B. C is not an immediate neighbour of A. C sits
to immediate right of D.
III. D is an immediate neighbour of both A and C. B sits to the immediate left
of A. C sits to the immediate right of B.
Direction (Q.No 35) Read the following information
carefully and answer the question which follows.
35. Farmers found using chemical
fertilizers in the organic-farming area of their farms would be heavily fined.
Which of the following statements is an assumption implicit in the given
statement?
(An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted).
(1) Chemical fertilizers harm the crop.
(2) A farm’s area for organic and chemical farming is different.
(3) Farmers who do not use chemical fertilizers in the chemical farming area
would be penalized as well.
(4) All farmers undertake both these kinds of farming (Chemical as-well-as
organic) in their farms.
(5) Organic fertilizers are banned in the area for chemical farming.
Direction (Q.No. 36) Read the following information
carefully and answer the questions which follow.
Small brands are now looking beyond local grocery stores and are tying up with
super markets such as Big Bazaar to pull their business out of troubled waters.
36. Which of the following can be
inferred from the given information? (An inference is something that is not
directly stated but can be inferred from the given information)
(1) Merchandise of smaller brands would not be available at local grocery
stores in the near future.
(2) Smaller brands cannot compete with bigger ones in a super market set-up.
(3) There is a perception among small brands that sale in a super market is
higher than that of small grocery stores.
(4) Super markets generate more revenue by selling products of bigger brands as
compared to the smaller ones.
(5) Smaller brands have always had more tie-ups with super markets as compared
to small grocery stores.
Directions (Q. Nos. 37-40) These questions are based on the
information given above and the sentences labelled A, B, C, D, E and F as given
below.
A. A smaller brand manufacturing a certain product of quality comparable with
that of a bigger brand, makes much more profit from the local grocery stores
than from the super markets.
B. As the super markets have been set up only in bigger cities at present, this
step would fail to deliver results in the smaller cities.
C. Super markets help the smaller brands to break into newer markets without
investing substantially in distribution.
D. Super markets charge the smaller brands 10% higher than the amount charged
to the bigger brands.
E. Being outnumbered by the bigger brands, visibility of the smaller brands at
local grocery stores is much lower as compared to the super markets.
F. Smaller brands are currently making substantial losses in their businesses.
37. Which of the statements numbered A,
B, C, D, E and F can be assumed from the facts/information given in the
statement? (An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted)
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Both B and C
(4) Both D and E
(5) Only F
38. Which of the statements
numbered A, B, C, E and F represents a disadvantage of the small grocery stores
over the super markets from the perspective of a smaller brand?
(1) Only A
(2) Only C
(3) Only E
(4) Only F
(5) Both B and C
39. Which of the statements A, B, C, D
and E mentioned above represents a reason for the shift from local grocery
stores to super markets by the smaller brands?
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only D
(4) Both A and D
(5) Both C and E
40. Which of the statements numbered A,
B, C, E and F mentioned above would prove that the step taken by the smaller
brands (of moving to super markets) may not necessarily be correct?
(1) Only A
(2) Only C
(3) Only E
(4) Only F
(5) Both B and E
Directions (Q. Nos. 41-45) In each of the questions given
below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the
problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
Directions (Q. Nos. 46-50) In each of the following
questions below, the figures follow a series/sequence. One and only one of the
five figures does not fit in the series/sequence. The number of that figure is
your answer.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
Section II Quantitative Aptitude
Directions (Q. Nos. 51-55) What will come in place of the
question mark (?) in the following questions?
51. 4003 x 77 – 21015 = ? x 116
(1) 2477
(2) 2478
(3) 2467
(4) 2476
(5) None of these
52. [(5√7 +√7) x (4√7 + 8√7)] – (19×19) = ?
(1) 143
(2) 72√7
(3)134
(4) 70√7
(5) None of these
53. (4444 / 40) + (645 / 25) +
(3991 / 26) = ?
(1) 280.4
(2) 290.4
(3) 295.4
(4) 285.4
(5) None of these
54.√33124 x√2601 – (83)2 = (?)2 + (37)2
(1)37
(2) 33
(3) 34
(4) 28
(5) None of these
55. 5 17/37 x4 51/52 x 11 1/7+ 2
3/4 = ?
(1) 303.75
(2) 305.75
(3) 303 ¾
(4) 305 1/4
(5) None of these
Directions (Q. Nos. 56-60) What approximate value should come
in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? (Note You are not
expected to calculate the exact value).
56. 8787 + 343 x √50 = ?
(1) 250
(2) 140
(3) 180
(4) 100
(5) 280
57. √54821 x (303 + 8) = (?)2
(1)48
(2)38
(3)28
(4)18
(5) 58
58. 5/8 of 4011.33 + 7/10 of 3411.22 = ?
(1) 4810
(2) 4980
(3) 4890
(4) 4930
(5) 4850
59. 23% of 6783 + 57% of 8431 = ?
(1) 6460
(2) 6420
(3) 6320
(4) 6630
(5) 6360
60. 335.01 x 244.99 + 55 = ?
(1)1490
(2) 1550
(3) 1420
(4) 1590
(5) 1400
Directions (Q. Nos. 61-65) In each of these questions a number
series is given. In each series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong
number.
61. 5531 5506 5425 5304 5135 4910
4621
(1) 5531
(2) 5425
(3) 4621
(4) 5135
(5) 5506
62. 6 7 9 13 26 37 69
(1) 7
(2) 26
(3) 69
(4) 37
(5) 9
63. 1 3 10 36 152 760 4632
(1) 3
(2) 36
(3) 4632
(4) 760
(5) 152
64. 4 3 9 34 96 219 435
(1) 4
(2) 9
(3) 34
(4) 435
(5) 219
65. 157.5 45 15 6 3 2 1
(1)1
(2) 2
(3)6
(4) 157.5
(5) 45
Directions (Q. Nos. 66-70) Study the following graph and
table carefully and answer the questions given below.
Time taken to travel (in hours) by
six vehicles on two different days
Distance covered (in kilometers) by
six vehicles on each day
66. Which of the following vehicles
travelled at the same speed on both the days?
(1) Vehicle A
(2) Vehicle C
(3) Vehicle F
(4) Vehicle B
(5) None of these
67. What was the difference between the
speed of vehicle A on day 1 and the speed of vehicle C on the same day?
(1)7 km/h
(2) 12 km/h
(3) 11 km/h
(4) 8 km/h
(5) None of these
68. What was the speed of vehicle
C on day 2 in terms of meters per second?
(1) 15.3
(2) 12.8
(3) 11.5
(4) 13.8
(5) None of these
69. The distance travelled by
vehicle F on day 2 was approximately what per cent of the distance travelled by
it on day 1?
(1) 80
(2) 65
(3) 85
(4) 95
(5) 90
70. What is the respective ratio
between the speeds of vehicle D and vehicle E on day 2?
(1) 15:13
(2) 17:13
(3) 13:11
(4) 17:14
(5) None of these
71. An article was purchased for ₹
78350. Its price was marked up by 30%. It was sold at a discount of 20% on the
marked up price. What was the profit per cent on the cost price?
(1) 4
(2) 7
(3) 5
(4) 3
(5) 6
72. When X is subtracted from the
numbers 9,15 and 27, the remainders are in continued proportion. What is the
value of X?
(1) 8
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 5
(5) None of these
73. What is the difference between the
simple and compound interest on 7300 at the rate of 6% per annum in 2 yr?
(1) ₹ 29.37
(2) ₹ 26.28
(3) ₹ 31.41
(4) ₹ 23.22
(5) ₹ 21.34
74. Sum of three consecutive
numbers is 2262. What is 41% of the highest number?
(1) 301.51
(2) 303.14
(3) 308.73
(4) 306.35
(5) 309.55
75. In how many different ways can
the letters of the word ‘THERAPY’ be arranged so that the vowels never come
together?
(1) 720
(2) 1440
(3) 5040
(4) 3600
(5) 4800
Directions (Q.Nos. 76-80) Study the following pie-chart and
table carefully and answer the questions given below.
Percentagewise distribution of the
number of mobile phones sold by a shopkeeper during six months
Total number of mobile phones sold = 45000
The respective ratio between the
number of mobile phones sold of company A and company B during six months
Month Ratio
July 8:7
August 4:5
September 3:2
October 7:5
November 7:8
December 7:9
76. What is the respective ratio between
the number of mobile phones sold of company B during July and those sold during
December of the same company?
(1) 119:145
(2) 116:135
(3) 119:135
(4) 119:130
(5) None of these
77. If 35% of the mobile phones
sold by company A during November were sold at a discount, how many mobile
phones of company A during that month were sold without a discount?
(1) 882
(2) 1635
(3) 1638
(4)885
(5) None of these
78. If the shopkeeper earned a
profit of ₹ 433 on each mobile phone sold of company B during October, what was
his total profit earned on the mobile phones of that company during the same
month?
(1) ₹649900
(2) ₹ 645900
(3) ₹ 649400
(4) ₹ 649500
(5) None of these
79. The number of mobile phones sold of
company A during July is approximately what per cent of the number of mobile
phones sold of company A during December?
(1) 110
(2) 140
(3) 150
(4) 105
(5) 130
80. What is the total number of mobile
phones sold of company B during August and September together?
(1) 10000
(2) 15000
(3) 10500
(4)9500
(5) None of these
Directions (Q.Nos. 81-85) Study the following information and
answer the questions that follow.
The premises of a bank are to be renovated. The renovation is in terms of
flooring. Certain areas are to be floored either with marble or wood. All
rooms/halls and pantry are rectangular. The area to be renovated comprises of a
hall for customer transaction measuring 23 m by 29 m, branch manager’s room
measuring 13 m by 17 m, a pantry measuring 14 m by 13 m, a record keeping cum
server room measuring 21 m by 13 m and locker area measuring 29 m by 21 m. The
total area of the bank is 2000 sq m. The cost of wooden flooring is ₹ 170 per
sq m and the cost of marble flooring is ₹ 190 per sq m. The locker area, record
keeping cum server room and pantry are to be floored with marble. The branch
manager’s room and the hall for customer transaction are to be floored with
wood. No other area is to be renovated in terms of flooring.
81. What is the respective ratio of the
total cost of wooden flooring to the total cost of marble flooring?
(1) 1879:2527
(2) 1887:2386
(3) 1887:2527
(4) 1829:2527
(5) 1887:2351
82. If the four walls and ceiling
of the branch managers room (The height of the room is 12 m) are to be painted
at the cost of ₹ 190 per sq m, how much will be the total cost of renovation of
the branch manager’s room including the cost of flooring?
(1) ₹ 136800
(2) ₹ 216660
(3) ₹ 178790
(4) ₹ 211940
(5) None of these
83. If the remaining area of the bank is
to be carpeted at the rate of ₹ 110 per sq m, how much will be the increment in
the total cost of renovation of bank premises?
(1) ₹ 5820
(2) ₹ 4848
(3) ₹ 3689
(4) ₹ 6890
(5) None of these
84. What is the percentage area of the
bank that is not to be renovated?
(1) 2.2
(2) 2.4
(3) 4.2
(4) 4.4
(5) None of these
85. What is the total cost of renovation
of the hall for customer transaction and the locker area?
(1) ₹ 229100
(2) ₹ 230206
(3) ₹ 216920
(4) ₹ 242440
(5) None of these
86. A certain amount was to be
distributed among A, B and C in the ratio 2:3:4 respectively, but was
erroneously distributed in the ratio 7:2:5 respectively. As a result of this, B
got ₹ 40 less. What is the amount?
(1) ₹ 210
(2) ₹ 270
(3) ₹ 230
(4) ₹ 280
(5) None of these
87. Rachita enters a shop to buy
ice-creams, cookies and pastries. She has to buy at least 9 units of each. She
buys more cookies than ice-creams and more pastries than cookies. She picks up
a total of 32 items. How many cookies does she buy?
(1) Either 12 or 13
(2) Either 11 or 12
(3) Either 10 or 11
(4) Either 9 or 11
(5) Either 9 or 10
88. The fare of a bus is ₹ X for the
first five km and ₹ 13 per km thereafter. If a passenger pays ₹ 2402 for a
journey of 187 km, what is the value of X?
(1) ₹ 29
(2) ₹ 39
(3) ₹ 36
(4) ₹ 31
(5) None of these
89. The product of three consecutive
even numbers is 4032. The product of the first and the third number is 252.
What is five times the second number?
(1) 80
(2) 100
(3) 60
(4) 70
(5) 90
90. The sum of the ages of 4 members of
a family 5 yr ago was 94 yr. Today, when the daughter has been married off and
replaced by a daughter-in-law, the sum of their ages is 92. Assuming that there
has been no other change in the family structure and all the people are alive,
what is the difference in the age of the daughter and the daughter-in-law?
(1) 22 yr
(2) 11 yr
(3) 25 yr
(4) 19 yr
(5) 15 yr
91. A bag contains 13 white and 7 black
balls. Two balls are drawn at random. What is the probability that they are of
the same colour?
(1) 41/190
(2) 21/190
(3) 59/190
(4) 99/190
(5) 77/190
92. Akash scored 73 marks in subject A.
He scored 56% marks in subject B and X marks in subject C. Maximum marks in
each subject were 150. The overall percentage marks obtained by Akash in all
the three subjects together were 54%. How many marks did he score in subject C?
(1) 84
(2) 86
(3) 79
(4) 73
(5) None of these
93. The area of a square is 1444
sq m. The breadth of a rectangle is l/4th the side of the square and the length
of the rectangle is thrice the breadth. What is the difference between the area
of the square and the area of the rectangle?
(1) 1152.38 sq m
(2) 1169.33 sq m
(3) 1181.21 sq m
(4) 1173.25 sq m
(5) None of these
94. ₹ 73689 are divided between A
and B in the ratio 4: 7. What is the difference between thrice the share of A
and twice the share of B?
(1) ₹ 36699
(2) ₹ 46893
(3) ₹ 20097
(4) ₹ 26796
(5) ₹ 13398
95. A and B together can complete a task
in 20 days. B and C together can complete the same task in 30 days. A and C
together can complete the same task in 40 days. What is the respective ratio of
the number of days taken by A when completing the same task alone to the number
of days taken by C when completing the same task alone?
(1) 2:5
(2) 2:7
(3) 3: 7
(4) 1: 5
(5) 3: 5
Directions (Q.Nos. 96-100) Study the following
information and answer the questions that follow.
The graph given below represents the production (in tonne) and sales (in tonne) of company A from 2006-2011.
The table given below represents the respective ratio of the production (in tonne) of Company A to the production (in tonne) of Company B, and the respective ratio of the sales (in tonne) of Company A to the sales (in tonne) of Company B.
96. What is the approximate percentage
increase in the production of Company A (in tonne) from the year 2009 to the
production of Company A (in tonne) in the year 2010?
(1) 18
(2) 38
(3) 23
(4) 27
(5) 32
97. The sales of Company A in the year
2009 was approximately what per cent of the production of Company A in the same
year?
(1) 65
(2) 73
(3) 79
(4) 83
(5) 69
98. What is the average production of
Company B (in tonne) from the year 2006 to the year 2011?
(1) 574
(2) 649
(3) 675
(4) 593
(5) 618
99. What is the respective ratio
of the total production (in tonne) of Company A to the total sales (in tonne)
of Company A?
(1) 81:64
(2) 64:55
(3) 71:81
(4) 71:55
(5) 81: 55
100. What is the respective ratio of
production of Company B (in tonne) in the year 2006 to production of Company B
(in tonne) in the year 2008?
(1) 2:5
(2) 4:5
(3) 3:4
(4) 3:5
(5) 1:4
Section III General Awareness
101. A money deposited at a bank
that cannot be withdrawn for a preset fixed period of time is known as a
(1) Term Deposit
(2) Saving Bank Deposit
(3) Current Deposit
(4) Checking Account
(5) No Frills Account
102. A worldwide financial
messaging network which exchanges messages between banks and financial
institutions is known as
(1) CHAPS
(2) SWIFT
(3) NEFT
(4) SFMS
(5) CHIPS
103. Which of the following
Ministries along with Planning Commission of India has decided to set up a
Corpus Fund of ₹ 500 crore, so that Tribals in Naxal-hit areas can be provided
proper means of livelihood?
(1) Ministry of Rural Development
(2) Ministry of Home Affairs
(3) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
(4) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
(5) Ministry of Finance
104. Which of the following was the
issue over which India decided to vote against Sri Lanka in the meeting of one
of the UN governed bodies/ agencies?
(1) Violations of human rights in Sri Lanka
(2) Allowing China to establish a military base in Indian Ocean
(3) Issue of subsidy on agricultural products in the meeting of the WTO
(4) Allowing part of Sri Lanka to become an independent country governed by LTTE
(5) Sri Lanka’s claim to become a permanent member of UN Security Council
105. The term ‘Smart Money’ refers
to
(1) Foreign Currency
(2) Internet Banking
(3) US Dollars
(4) Travellers’ cheques
(5) Credit Cards
106. Which one of the following is not a ‘Money
Market Instrument’?
(1) Treasury Bills
(2) Commercial Paper
(3) Certificate of Deposit
(4) Equity Shares
(5) None of these
107. Which one of the following is a
retail banking product?
(1) Home loans
(2) Working capital finance
(3) Corporate term loans
(4) Infrastructure financing
(5) Export credit
108. Which of the following
statements is true about political situation in Mali, where a military coup
burst out recently?
(1) General elections were due there in March/April, 2012 but did not take
place
(2) The country was under the control of US army since last 18 months
(3) Army of the country was not happy as Amadou Toure was made President
without elections for the next five years
(4) Coup broke out in Mali when Amadou Toure, the Military Chief got seriously
injured in a bomb blast
(5) NATO and its associates had planned a coup there
109. In the summit of which of the
following organizations/group of nations it was decided that all members should
enforce Budget Discipline?
(1) G-8
(2) OPEC
(3) European Union
(4) SAARC
(5) G-20
110. As per newspaper reports,
India is planning to use ‘SEU’ as fuel in its 700 MW nuclear reactors being
developed in new plants. What is full form of ‘SEU’ as used here?
(1) Safe Electrical Units
(2) Small Electrical Units
(3) Slightly Enriched Uranium
(4) Sufficiently Enriched Units
(5) Safely Enriched Uranium
111. Technological Advancement in the
recent times has given a new dimension to banks, mainly to which one of the
following aspects?
(1) New Age Financial Derivatives
(2) Service Delivery Mechanism
(3) Any Banking
(4) Any Type Banking
(5) Multilevel Marketing
112. When there is a difference between
all receipts and expenditure of the Government of India, both capital and
revenue, it is called
(1) Revenue Deficit
(2) Budgetary Deficit
(3) Zero Budgeting
(4) Trade Gap
(5) Balance of Payment Problem
113. Which of the following is not
a function of the Reserve Bank of India?
(1) Fiscal Policy Functions
(2) Exchange Control Functions
(3) Issuance, Exchange and Destruction of Currency Notes
(4) Monetary Authority Functions
(5) Supervisory and Control Functions
114. Which of the following is not
required for opening a bank account?
(1) Identity Proof
(2) Address Proof
(3) Recent Photographs
(4) Domicile Certificate
(5) None of the above
115. The Golden Jubilee of
Afro-Asian Rural Development Organization was organized in which of the
following places in March 2012?
(1) Dhaka
(2) Tokyo
(3) Cairo
(4) Kuala Lampur
(5) New Delhi
116. What is the maximum deposit
amount insured by DICGC?
(1) ₹ 200000 per depositor per bank
(2) ₹ 200000 per depositor across all banks
(3) ₹ 100000 per depositor per bank
(4) ₹ 100000 per depositor across all banks
(5) None of the above
117. The present Foreign Trade Policy of
India will continue till
(1) December 2012
(2) March 2013
(3) March 2014
(4) June 2013
(5) December 2014
118. With reference to a cheque
which of the following is the ‘drawee bank’?
(1) The bank that collects the cheque
(2) The payee’s bank
(3) The endorsee’s bank
(4) The endorser’s bank
(5) The bank upon which the cheque is drawn
119. In which of the following fund
transfer mechanisms, can funds be moved from one bank to another and where the
transaction is settled instantly without being bunched with any other
transaction?
(1) RTGS
(2) NEFT
(3) TT
(4) EFT
(5) MT
120. What was the reason owing to which
Enrica Lexie, an Italian ship was detained by the port authorities in Kerala
and was brought to Cochin port for inspection and search?
(1) It was carrying objectionable material
(2) it was involved in sea piracy
(3) It was detained as the two crew members killed two Indian fishermen
(4) The ship started sailing without making payments of iron ore it loaded
(5) It was detained as it was dumping nuclear waste in deep sea
121. Which of the following
agencies/ organizations recently gave ‘go-ahead’ verdict to India’s one of the
most controversial project of inter linking rivers? (some of the rivers are
international rivers)
(1) UN Food and Agriculture Organization
(2) World Meteorological Organization
(3) International Court of Justice
(4) Central Water Commission
(5) Supreme Court of India
122. Who among the following was
the captain of the Australian Team which played 4 Test matches against India in
January 2012 and won all of them?
(1) Ricky Ponting
(2) Michael Clarke
(3) Nathan Lyon
(4) Stuart Clark
(5) Andrew Symonds
123. The committee on review of National
Small Saving Fund (NSSF) was headed by
(1) Dr. C Rangarajan
(2) Mr. U K Sinha
(3) Dr. Y V Reddy
(4) Mrs. Shyamala Gopinath
(5) Dr. Usha Thorat
124. Banking Ombudsman Scheme is
applicable to the business of
(1) all scheduled commercial banks excluding RRBs
(2) all scheduled commercial banks including RRBs
(3) only public sector banks
(4) all banking companies
(5) all scheduled banks except private banks
125. The 5th Asian Indoor Athletics
Championship was organized in February 2012 in
(1) Bangladesh
(2) India
(3) Qatar
(4) China
(5) South Korea
126. Nationalization of banks aimed
at all of the following except
(1) Provision of adequate credit for agriculture SME & exports
(2) removal of control by a few capitalists
(3) provision of credit to big industries only
(4) access of banking to masses
(5) encouragement of a new class of entrepreneurs
127. Who among the following was
the Chief Guest at the three day Pravasi Bharatiya Divas function held in
January 2012?
(1) Kamla Parsaa Bissessar
(2) Ram Baran Yadav
(3) Lakshmi Mittal
(4) Salman Rushdie
(5) Benjamin Netanyahu
128. Which of the following banks is
headed by a woman CEO?
(1) Bank of Baroda
(2) HDFC Bank
(3) Central Bank of India
(4) Punjab National Bank
(5) ICICI Bank
129. As per revised RBI Guidelines,
provision on secured portion of loan accounts classified as doubtful assets for
more than one year and upto 3 (three) years is to be made at the rate of
(1) 15%
(2) 20%
(3) 40%
(4) 25%
(5) 30%
130. As per the provisions in the Food
Security Bill, 2011, per month how much food grain should be given to each
person of the target group?
(1) 5 kg
(2) 7 kg
(3) 9 kg
(4) 10 kg
(5) 20 kg
131. Which of the following acts in
vogue in India is against the thinking of raising school fee as per demand of
the market forces?
(1) Prevention of Corruption Act
(2) Child Labour (Prohibition & Regulation) Act
(3) Sharda Act
(4) Right to Education Act
(5) MG National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
132. Which of the following states
has launched ‘Panch Parmeshwar Yojana’ under which panchayats are allowed to
use the fund for developing infrastructure and basic amenities in villages?
(1) Uttar Pradesh
(2) Maharashtra
(3) Gujarat
(4) Madhya Pradesh
(5) Tamil Nadu
133. Base rate is the rate below which no
bank can allow their lending to anyone. Who sets up this ‘Base Rate’ for Banks?
(1) Individual Banks’ Board
(2) Ministry of Commerce
(3) Ministry of Finance
(4) RBI
(5) Interest Rate Commission of India
134. National Table Tennis Championship
was organized in, January 2012 in
(1) Mumbai
(2) Delhi
(3) Hyderabad
(4) Lucknow
(5) Jaipur
135. Who among the following is the
author, of the book ‘Nirbasan’?
(1) Mahashweta Devi
(2) Taslima Nasreen
(3) Sunil Gangopadhyay
(4) Vikram Seth
(5) Kiran Desai
136. What is a ‘Debit Card’?
(1) It is a card issued by a Rating Agency
(2) It is a card which can be used for withdrawing cash or making payment even
in the absence of any balance in the account
(3) It is a card which can be used for withdrawing cash or making payment if
there is balance in the account
(4) It is a card which carries prepaid balance
(5) It is a card which can be used for making STD calls
137. Who among the following Indian
Lawn Tennis player won a Doubles of Australian Open 2012?
(1) Mahesh Bhupati
(2) Kamlesh Mehta
(3) Leander Paes
(4) Sania Mirza
(5) Achanta Sarath Kamal
138. ‘Akula-irClass’K-152 Nerpa’was
inducted in Indian Navy recently. These are
(1) aircrafts
(2) radar system
(3) submarines missiles
(4) warship
(5) submarines
139. Which of the following awards was
conferred upon Late Mario De Miranda (Posthumously) in January 2012?
(1) Padma Vibhushan
(2) Bharat Ratna
(3) Kalidas Samman
(4) Saraswati Samman
(5) Padmashri
140. Bad advances of a Bank are
called
(1) Bad debt
(2) Book debt
(3) Non Performing Asset
(4) Out of order accounts
(5) Overdrawn accounts
141. Axis Bank is a
(1) Public Sector Bank
(2) Private Sector Bank
(3) Co-operative Bank
(4) Foreign Bank
(5) Gramin Bank
142. By increasing repo rate, the
economy may observe the following effects
(1) rate of interest on loans and advances will be costlier
(2) industrial output would be affected to an extent
(3) banks will increase rate of interest on deposits
(4) industry houses may borrow money from foreign countries
(5) All of the above
143. Increased interest rates, as is
existing in the economy at present will
(1) lead to higher GDP growth
(2) lead to lower GDP growth
(3) mean higher cost of raw materials
(4) mean lower cost of raw materials
(5) mean higher wage bill
144. Which of the following schemes is
launched to provide pension to people in unorganized sectors in India?
(1) Swabhiman
(2) Jeevan Dhara
(3) Jeevan Kalyan
(4) ASHA
(5) Swavalamban
145. The 10th Basic Ministerial
Meeting on climate change was organized in February 2012 in
(1) Tokyo
(2) Beijing
(3) Manila
(4) Moscow
(5) New Delhi
146. Finance Ministry has asked the
Reserve Bank of India to allow common ATM’s that will be owned and managed by
non-banking entities hoping to cut transaction costs for banks. Such ATM’s are
known as
(1) Black Label ATM’s
(2) Off site ATM’s
(3) Onsite ATM’s or red ATM’s
(4) Third Party ATM’s
(5) White Label ATM’s
147. Which of the following schemes of
the Government of India has provided electricity to 99000 villages and total
1.7 crore households up till now?
(1) Kutir Jyoti
(2) Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojana
(3) Bharat Nirman
(4) PURA
(5) SEWA
148. Ranbir Kapoor was awarded Best
Actor Award in 57th Film Fare Award function for his performance in
(1) No One Killed Jessica
(2) Stanley Ka Dabba
(3) 7 Khoon Maaf
(4) Rockstar
(5) Zindagi Na Milegi Dobara
149. An ECS transaction gets bounced and
you are unable to recover your money from your customer. Under which Act
criminal action can be initiated?
(1) Indian Penal Code
(2) Negotiable Instruments Act
(3) Criminal Procedure Code
(4) Payment and Settlements Act
(5) Indian Contract Act
150. Mr. Rajendra had filed a complaint
with Banking Ombudsman but is not satisfied with the decision. What is the next
option before him for getting his matter resolved?
(1) Write to the CMD of the Bank
(2) File an appeal before the Finance Minister
(3) File an appeal before the Banking OmbudHints and Solutionssman again
(4) File an appeal before the Dy. Governor RBI
(5) Simply close the matter as going to court involves time and money
Section IV Computer Knowledge
151. Allows users to upload files
to an online site so they can be viewed and edited from another location.
(1) General-purpose applications
(2) Microsoft Outlook
(3) Web-hosted technology
(4) Office Live
(5) None of the above
152. What feature adjusts the top and
bottom margins so that the text is centered vertically on the printed page?
(1) Vertical justifying
(2) Vertical adjusting
(3) Dual centering
(4) Horizontal centering
(5) Vertical centering
153. Which of these is not a means of
personal communication on the Internet?
(1) Chat
(2) Instant messaging
(3) Instanotes
(4) Electronic mail
(5) None of these
154. What is the overall term for
creating editing, formatting, storing, retrieving and printing a text document?
(1) Word processing
(2) Spreadsheet design
(3) Web design
(4) Database management
(5) Presentation generation
155. Fourth-generation mobile
technology provides enhanced capabilities allowing the transfer of both _______
data, including full-motion video, high-speed Internet access, and video
conferencing.
(1) video data and information
(2) voice and non-voice
(3) music and video
(4) video and audio
(5) None of the above
156. _______ is a form of denial of
service attack in which a hostile client repeatedly sends SYN packets to every
port on the server using fake IP addresses.
(1) Cybergaming crime
(2) Memory shaving
(3) Syn flloding
(4) Software piracy
(5) None of the above
157. Which of these is a point-and-draw
device?
(1) Mouse
(2) Scanner
(3) Printer
(4) CD-ROM
(5) Keyboard
158. The letter and number of the
intersecting column and row is the
(1) cell location
(2) cell position
(3) cell address
(4) cell coordinates
(5) cell contents
159. A set of rules for telling the
computer what operations to perform is called a
(1) procedural language
(2) structures
(3) natural language
(4) command language
(5) programming language
160. A detailed written description
of the programming cycle and the program, along with the test results and a
printout of the program is called
(1) documentation
(2) output
(3) reporting
(4) spec sheets
(5) directory
161. Forms that are used to organize
business data into rows and columns are called
(1) transaction sheets
(2) registers
(3) business forms
(4) sheet-spreads
(5) spreadsheets
162. In Power Point, the Header
& Footer button can be found on the Insert tab in what group?
(1) Illustrations group
(2) Object group
(3) Text group
(4) Tables group
(5) None of these
163. A(n) ________ is a set of
programs designed to manage the resources of a computer, including starting the
computer, managing programs, managing memory and coordinating tasks between
input and output devices.
(1) application suite
(2) compiler
(3) input/output system
(4) interface
(5) operating system (OS)
164. A typical slide in a slide
presentation would not include
(1) photo images charts, and graphs
(2) graphs and clip art
(3) clip art and audio clips
(4) full-motion video
(5) content templates
165. The PC productivity tool that
manipulates data organized in rows and column is called a
(1) spreadsheet
(2) word processing document
(3) presentation mechanism
(4) database record manager
(5) EDI creator
166. In the absence of parentheses, the
order of operation is
(1) exponentiation, addition or subtraction, multiplication or division
(2) addition or subtraction, multiplication or division, exponentiation
(3) multiplication or division, exponentiation, addition or subtraction
(4) exponentiation, multiplication or division, addition or subtraction
(5) addition or subtraction, exponentiation, multiplication or division
167. To find the Paste Special
option, you use the Clipboard group on the ______ tab of Power Point.
(1) Design
(2) Slide Show
(3) Page Layout
(4) Insert
(5) Home
168. A(n) _______ program is one
that is ready to run and does not need to be altered in any way.
(1) interpreter
(2) high-level
(3) compiler
(4) COBOL
(5) executable
169. Usually downloaded into
folders that hold temporary Internet files, _______ are written to your
computer’s hard disk by some of the Web sites you visit.
(1) anonymous files
(2) behaviour files
(3) banner ads
(4) large files
(5) cookies
170. What is the easiest way to
change the phrase, revenues, profits, gross margin, to read revenues, profits,
and gross margin?
(1) Use the insert mode, position the cursor before the g in gross, then type
the word and followed by a space
(2) Use the insert mode, position the cursor after the g in gross, then type
the word and followed by a space
(3) Use the overtype mode, position the cursor before the g in gross, then type
the word and followed by a space
(4) Use the overtype mode, position the cursor after the g in gross, then type
the word and followed by a space
(5) None of the above
171. A program, either talk or
music, that is made available in digital format for automatic download over the
Internet is called a
(1) wiki
(2) broadcast
(3) vodcast
(4) blog
(5) podcast
172. Which Power Point view
displays each slide of the presentation as a thumbnail and is useful for
rearranging slides?
(1) Slide Sorter
(2) Slide Show
(3) Slide Master
(4) Notes Page
(5) Slide Design
173. Different components on the
motherboard of a PC unit are linked together by sets of parallel electrical
conducting lines. What are these lines called?
(1) Conductors
(2) Buses
(3) Connectors
(4) Consecutives
(5) None of these
174. What is the name given to
those applications that combine text, sound, graphics, motion video, and/ or
animation?
(1) Motionware
(2) Anigraphics
(3) Videoscapes
(4) Multimedia
(5) Maxomedia
175. A USB communication device
that supports data encryption for secure wireless communication for notebook
users is called a
(1) USB wireless network adapter
(2) wireless switch
(3) wireless hub
(4) router
(5) None of the above
176. A(n) _______ language reflects the
way people think mathematically.
(1) cross-platform programming
(2) 3GL business programming
(3) event-driven programming
(4) functional
(5) None of the above
177. When entering text within a
document, the Enter key is normally pressed at the end of every
(1) line
(2) sentence
(3) paragraph
(4) word
(5) file
178. When a real time telephone call
between people is made over the Internet using computers, it is called
(1) a chat session
(2) an e-mail
(3) an instant message
(4) Internet telephony
(5) None of these
179. Which of the following is the first
step in sizing a window?
(1) Point to the title bar
(2) Pull down the View menu to display the toolbar
(3) Point to any corner or border
(4) Pull down the View menu and change to large icons
(5) None of the above
180. Which of the following
software could assist someone who cannot use their hands for computer input?
(1) Video conferencing
(2) Speech recognition
(3) Audio digitizer
(4) Synthesizer
(5) None of these
181. _______ a document means the
file is transferred from another computer to your computer.
(1) Uploading
(2) Really Simple Syndication (RSS)
(3) Accessing
(4) Downloading
(5) Upgrading
182. Which computer memory is used for
storing programs and data currently being processed by the CPU?
(1) Mass memory
(2) Internal memory
(3) Non-volatile memory
(4) PROM
(5) None of these
183. Computers that control processes
accept data in a continuous
(1) data traffic pattern
(2) data highway
(3) infinite loop
(4) feedback loop
(5) slot
184. What refers to a set of characters
of a particular design?
(1) Keyface
(2) Formation
(3) Calligraph
(4) Stencil
(5) Typeface
185. _________ is used by public and
private enterprises to publish and share financial information with each other
and industry analysts across all computer platforms and the Internet.
(1) Extensible Markup Language (EML)
(2) Extensible Business Reporting Language (XBRL)
(3) Enterprise Application Integration (EAI)
(4) Sales Force Automation (SFA) software
(5) None of the above
186. Which part of the computer is used
for calculating and comparing?
(1)ALU
(2) Control unit
(3) Disk unit
(4) Modem
(5) None of these
187. The method of Internet access that
requires a phone line, but offers faster access speeds than dial-up is the
_______ connection.
(1) cable access
(2) satellite access
(3) fiber-optic service
(4) Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)
(5) modem
188. ________ software creates a
mirror image of the entire hard disk, including the operating system,
applications, files, and data.
(1) Operating system
(2) Backup software
(3) Utility programs
(4) Driver imaging
(5) None of these
189. What is a URL?
(1) A computer software program
(2) A type of programming object
(3) The address of a document or ‘page’ on the World Wide Web
(4) An acronym for Unlimited Resources for Learning
(5) A piece of hardware
190. What is the significance of a faded
(dimmed) command in a pull-down menu?
(1) The command is not currently accessible
(2) A dialog box appears if the command is selected
(3) A Help window appears if the command is selected
(4) There are no equivalent keystrokes for the particular command
(5) None of the above
191. Your business has contracted with
another company to have them host and run an application for your company over
the Internet. The company providing this service to your business is called an
(1) Internet service provider
(2) Internet access provider
(3) Application service provider
(4) Application access provider
(5) Outsource agency
192. A(n) _______ allows you to
access your e-mail from anywhere.
(1) forum
(2) webmail interface
(3) message board
(4) weblog
(5) None of these
193. Which of the following would you
find on Linkedln?
(1) Games
(2) Connections
(3) Chat
(4) Applications
(5) None of these
194. _______ is a technique that is
used to send more than one call over a single line.
(1) Digital transmission
(2) Infrared transmission
(3) Digitizing
(4) Streaming
(5) Multiplexing
195. The Search Companion can
(1) locate all files containing a specified phrase
(2) restrict its search to a specified set of folders
(3) locate all files containing a specified phrase and restrict its search to a
specified set of folders
(4) cannot locate all files containing a specified phrase or restrict its
search to a specified set of folders
(5) None of the above
196. Which of the following cannot
be part of an e-mail address?
(1) Period (.)
(2) At sign (@)
(3) Space ()
(4) Underscore (_)
(5) None of the above
197. Which of the following must be
contained in a URL?
(1) A protocol identifier
(2) The letters, www.
(3) The unique registered domain name
(4) www. and the unique registered domain name
(5) A protocol identifier, www. and the unique registered domain name
198. Which of the following information
systems focuses on making manufacturing processes more efficient and of higher
quality?
(1) Computer-aided manufacturing
(2) Computer-integrated manufacturing
(3) Computer-aided software engineering
(4) Computer-aided system engineering
(5) None of the above
199. A mistake in an algorithm that
causes incorrect results is called a
(1) logical error
(2) syntax error
(3) procedural error
(4) compiler error
(5) machine error
200. A device for changing the
connection on a connector to a different configuration is
(1) a converter
(2) a component
(3) an attachment
(4) an adapter
(5) voltmeter
Section V English Language
Directions (Q.Nos. 201-208) Read the following passage carefully
and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words/phrases have been
printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
When times are hard, doomsayers are aplenty. The problem is that if you listen
to them too carefully, you tend to overlook the most obvious signs of change.
2011 was a bad year. Can 2012 be any worse? Doomsday forecasts are the easiest
to make these days. So, let’s try a contrarian’s forecast instead.
Let’s start with the global economy. We have soon a steady flow of good news
from the US. The employment situation seems to be improving rapidly and
consumer sentiment, reflected in retail expenditures on discretionary items
like electronics and clothes, has picked up. If these trends sustain, the US
might post better growth numbers for 2012 than the 1.5-1.8% being forecast
currently.
Japan is likely to pull out of a recession in 2012, as post-earthquake
reconstruction efforts gather momentum and the fiscal stimulus announced in
2011 begins to pay off. The consensus estimate for growth in Japan is a
respectable 2% for 2012.
The “hard-landing” scenario for China remains and will remain a myth. Growth
might decelerate further from the 9% that it expected to clock in 2011, but is unlikely
to drop below 8-8.5 % in 2012.
Europe is certainly in a spot of trouble. It is perhaps already in recession
and for 2012, it is likely to post mildly negative growth. The risk of
implosion has dwindled over the last few months -peripheral economies like
Greece, Italy and Spain have new governments in place and have made progress
towards genuine economic reform.
Even with some of these positive factors in place, we have to accept the fact
that global growth in 2012 will be tepid. But there is a flipside to this.
Softer growth means lower demand for commodities and this is likely to drive a
correction in commodity prices. Lower commodity inflation will enable emerging
market and central banks to reverse their monetary stance. China, for instance,
has already reversed its stance and has pared its reserve ratio twice. The RBI
also seems poised for a reversal in its rate cycle as headline inflation seems
well on its way to its target of 7% for March, 2012.
That said, oil might be an exception to the general trend in commodities.
Rising geopolitical tensions, particularly the continuing face-off between Iran
and the US, might lead to a spurt in prices. It might make sense for our oil
companies to hedge this risk instead of buying oil in the spot market.
As inflation fears abate and emerging market and central banks begin to cut
rates, two things could happen. Lower commodity inflation would mean lower
interest rates and better credit availability. This could set a floor to growth
and slowly reverse the business cycle within these economies. Second, as the
fear of untamed, runaway inflation in these economies abates, the global
investor’s comfort levels with their markets will increase. Which of the
emerging markets will outperform and who will get left behind? In an
environment in which global growth is likely to be weak, economies like India
that have a powerful domestic consumption, should lead; those dependent on
exports should, prima facie, fall behind. Specifically for India, a fall in the
exchange rate could not have come at a better time. It will help Indian
exporters gain market share even if global trade remains depressed. More
importantly, it could lead to massive import substitution that favours domestic
producers.
Let’s now focus on India and start with a caveat. It is important not to
confuse a short-run cyclical dip with a permanent de-rating of its long-term
structural potential. The arithmetic is simple. Our growth rate can be in the
range of 7-10% depending on policy action. 10%, if we get everything right, 7 %
if we get it all-wrong. Which policies and reforms are critical to taking us to
our 10% potential? In judging this, let’s again be careful. Let’s not go by the
laundry list of reforms that FIIs like to wave: increase in foreign equity limits
in foreign shareholding, greater voting rights for institutional shareholders
in banks, FDI in retail, etc. These can have an impact only at the margin. We
need not bend over backwards to appease the FIIs through these reforms – they
will invest in our markets when momentum picks up and will be the first to exit
when the momentum flags, reforms or not.
The reforms that we need are the ones that can actually raise our sustainable
long-term growth rate. These have to come in areas like better targeting of subsidies,
making projects in infrastructure viable so that they draw capital, raising the
productivity of agriculture improving healthcare and education, bringing the
parallel economy under the tax net, implementing fundamental reforms in
taxation like GST and the direct tax code and finally easing the myriad rules
and regulations that make doing business in India such a nightmare. A number of
these things do not require new legislation and can be done through executive
order.
201. Which of the following is not true
according to the passage?
(1) China’s economic growth may decline in the year 2012, as compared to the
year 2011
(2) The European Economy is not doing very well
(3) Greece is on the verge of bringing about economic reforms
(4) In the year 2012, Japan may post a positive growth and thus pull out of
recession
(5) All of the above are true
202. Which of the following will
possibly be a result of softer growth estimated for the year 2012?
(A) Prices of oil will not increase.
(B) Credit availability would be lesser.
(C) Commodity inflation would be lesser.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) Only (B)
(2) (A) and (B)
(3) (A) and (C)
(4) Only (C)
(5) All of these
203. Which of the following can be said
about the present status of the US Economy?
(1) There is not much improvement in the economic scenario of the country from
the year 2011
(2) The growth in the economy of the country, in the year 2012, would
definitely be lesser than 1.8%
(3) The expenditure on clothes and electronic commodities, by consumers, is
lesser than that in the year 2011
(4) There is a chance that in 2012, the economy would do better than what has
been forecast
(5) The pace of change in the employment scenario of the country is very slow
204. Which of the following is possibly
the most appropriate title for the passage?
(1) The Economic Disorder
(2) Indian Economy Versus the European Economy
(3) Global Trade
(4) The Current Economic Scenario
(5) Characteristics of the Indian Economy
205. According to the author, which of
the following would characterise Indian growth scenario in 2012?
(A) Domestic producers will take a hit because of depressed global trade
scenario
(B) On account of its high domestic consumption, India will lead
(C) Indian exporters will have a hard time in gaining market share
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) Only (A)
(2) (A) and (B)
(3) (B) and (C)
(4) Only (A)
(5) All of these
206. Why does the author not
recommend taking up the reforms suggested by FIIs?
(1) These will bring about only minor growth
(2) The reforms suggested will have no effect on the economy of our country,
whereas will benefit the FIIs significantly
(3) The previous such recommendations had backfired
(4) These reforms will be the sole reason for our country’s economic downfall
(5) The reforms suggested by them are not to be trusted as they will not bring
about any positive growth in India
207. Which of the following is true
as per the scenario presented in the passage?
(1) The highest growth rate that India can expect is 7%
(2) The fall in the exchange rate will prove beneficial to India
(3) Increased FDI in retail as suggested by FIIs would benefit India
tremendously
(4) The reforms suggested by the author require new legislation in India
(5) None of The Above is true
208. According to the author, which
of the following reform/s is/are needed to ensure long term growth in India?
(A) Improving healthcare and educational facilities.
(B) Bringing about reforms in taxation.
(C) Improving agricultural productivity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(1) Only (B)
(2) (A) and (B)
(3) (B) and(C)
(4) Only (A)
(5) All of these
Directions (Q.Nos. 209-212) Choose the word/group of words which
is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used
in the passage.
209. Draw
(1) Entice
(2) Push
(3) Decoy
(4) Attract
(5) Persuade
210. Clock
(1) Watch
(2) Achieve
(3) Time
(4) Second
(5) Regulate
211. Abate
(1) Rise
(2) Gear
(3) Hurl
(4) Lessen
(5) Retreat
212. Emerging
(1) Raising
(2) Developing
(3) Noticeable
(4) Conspicuous
(5) Uproaring
Directions (Q.Nos. 213-215) Choose the word/group of words which
is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used
in the passage.
213. Myrida
(1) Trivial
(2) Difficult
(3) Few
(4) Effortless
(5) Countless
214. Tepid
(1) Moderate
(2) High
(3) Warm
(4) Irregular
(5) Little
215. Myth
(1) Reality
(2) Belief
(3) Contrast
(4) Idealism
(5) Falsehood
Directions (Q.Nos. 216-220) Rearrange the following six
sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in the proper sequence to form a meaningful
paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
A. If China is the world’s factory,
India has become the world’s outsourcing centre-keeping in line with this
image.
B. But, India’s future depends crucially on its ability to compete
fully in the creative economy-not just in tech and software, but across design
and entrepreneurship; arts, culture and entertainment; and the knowledge-based
professions of medicine, finance and law.
C. While its creative assets outstrip those of other emerging
competitors, India must address several challenges to increase its
international competitiveness as the world is in the midst of a sweeping
transformation.
D. This transformation is evident in the fact that the world is moving
from an industrial economy to a creative economy that generates wealth by
harnessing intellectual labour, intangible goods and human creative
capabilities.
E. Its software industry is the world’s second-largest, its tech
outsourcing accounts for more than half of the $ 300 billion global industry,
according to a technology expert.
F. If the meeting of world leaders at Davos is any indication,
India is rapidly becoming an economic ‘rock star’.
216. Which of the following should
be the Sixth (Last) sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
217. Which of the following should
be the Third sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) E
218. Which of the following should
be the Fifth sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) F
(5) E
219. Which of the following should
be the First sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) F
(2) B
(3) C
(4) A
(5) E
220. Which of the following should
be the Second sentence after the rearrangement?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
(5) F
Directions (Q. Nos. 221-225) The following questions
consist of a single sentence with one blank only. You are given six words
denoted by A, B, C, D, E and F as answer choices and from the six choices you
have to pick two correct answers, either of which will, make the sentence
meaningfully complete.
221. _______before the clock struck 8 on
Saturday night, India Gate was swamped with people wearing black T-shirts and
holding candles.
(A) Minutes
(B) Time
(C) Later
(D) Quickly
(E) Since
(F) Seconds
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(1) (B) and (E)
(2) (1) and (C)
(3) (A) and (F)
(4) (B) and (D)
(5) (C) and (E)
222. The states should take steps to
_______ the process of teachers’ appointments as the centre has already
sanctioned six lakh posts.
(A) fasten
(B) move
(C) hasten
(D)speed
(E) early
(F) quicken
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(1) (D) and (F)
(2) (A) and (C)
(3) (C) and (F)
(4) (D) and (E)
(5) (B) and (D)
223. A senior citizen’s son
________ threatened her every day and physically harmed her, forcing her to
transfer her property to him.
(A) superficially
(B) mistakenly
(C) allegedly
(D) miserably
(E) doubtfully
(F) purportedly
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(1) (C) and (F)
(2) (A) and (E)
(3) (C) and (E)
(4) (D) and (F)
(5) (A) and (C)
224. Medical teachers said that the
management had continued to remain ________ to their cause leading to the
stretching of their strike.
(A) unmoved
(B) lethargic
(C) unconcerned
(D) apathetic
(E) indifferent
(F) bored
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(1) (B) and (C)
(2) (C) and (F)
(3) (A) and (E)
(4) (A) and (D)
(5) (D) and (E)
225. The parents had approached the High
Court to _______ the government order after their children, who passed UKG,
were denied admission by a school.
(A) void
(B) quash
(C) annul
(D) stay
(E) lift
(F) post
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(1) (A) and (D)
(2) (B) and (C)
(3) (C) and (E)
(4) (E) and (F)
(5) (C) and (D)
Directions (Q. Nos. 226-235) Read each sentence to find out
whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if
any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the
answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (5). (Ignore errors of
punctuation, if any).
226. The Government has asked
individuals (1)/ with income of over ₹ 10 lakh to (2)/ electronic file tax
returns for the year 2011-12, (3)/something which was optional till last year.
(4)/ No error (5)
227. The power tariff had already (1)/
been increased twice in (2)/ the last 15 months and the Electricity Board had
also (3)/ levied additional monthly charges to consumers. (4)/ No error (5)
228. Despite of curfew (1)/ in some
areas, minor (2)/ communal incidents were reported (3)/ from different areas of
the walled city. (4)/ No error (5)
229. This comes (1)/ at a time (2)/ when
fund allocation (3)/ is been doubled. (4)/ No error (5)
230. As the prison will get (1)/ an
official telephone facility soon, the prisoners (2)/ won’t have to make calls
in discreet manner (3)/ through smuggled mobile phones. (4)/ No error (5)
231. The area was plunged into (1)/
darkness mid a wave of (2)/ cheering and shouting (3)/ slogans like ‘Save The
Earth. (4)/ No error (5)
232. The poll contestants
approached (1) / the commission complaining that the hoardings (2)/ violated
the code of conduct (3)/ and influenced public perception. (4)/ No error (5)
233. The country has (1)/ adequate
laws but problems (2)/ arise when these are not (3)/ implemented in letter and
spirit. (4)/ No error (5)
234. The management feels that (1)/
the employees of the organisation are (2)/ non-productive, and do not want (3)/
to work hard (4)/ No error (5)
235. As far the issue of land
encroachment (1)/ in villages is concerned, people will (2)/ have to make a
start from their villages by (3)/ sensitising and educating the villagers this
issue. (4)/ No error (5)
Directions (Q. Nos 236-240) Which of the phrases (1), (2)
, (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the word/phrase printed
in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is
correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer.
236. US secretary of state made it clear
that time running out for diplomacy over Iran’s nuclear programme and said that
talks aimed at preventing Tehran from acquiring a nuclear weapon would resume
in April.
(1) runs out
(2) was running out
(3) ran out
(4) run
(5) No correction required
237. While the war of the generals rage
on, somewhere in small town India, wonderful things are happening, quietly and
minus fanfare.
(1) rage
(2) raging
(3) rages on
(4) raged on
(5) No correction required
238. According to WWF, the small
Island nation of Samoa was the first in switch off its lights for Earth Hour.
(1) first to switch off
(2) the first to switch off
(3) the first of switch off
(4) first in switch off
(5) No correction required
239. The campaign is significant
because not just the youths are directly appealing to the world but because
their efforts challenge the chimera of normalcy in the area.
(1) not just because
(2) just not because
(3) not just
(4) because just
(5) No correction required
240. The doctor’s association has
threatened to go on indefinite strike support of their teachers.
(1) on supporting to
(2) to supporting
(3) for support
(4) in support of
(5) No correction required
Directions (Q. Nos 241-250) In the following passage there
are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below
the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which
fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each
case.
Greenhouse gases are only (241) of
the story when it comes to global warming. Changes to one part of the climate
system can (242) additional changes to the way the planet
absorbs or reflects energy. These secondary changes are (243) climate
feedbacks, and they could more than double the amount of warming caused by
carbon dioxide alone. The primary feedbacks are (244) to snow
and ice, water vapour, clouds, and the carbon cycle. Perhaps the most
well (245) feedback comes from melting snow and ice in the
Northern Hemisphere. Warming temperatures are already (246) a
growing percentage of Arctic sea ice, exposing dark ocean water during
the (247) sunlight of summer. Snow cover on land is also (248) in
many areas. In the (249) of snow and ice, these areas go from
having bright, sunlight-reflecting surfaces that cool the planet to having
dark, sunlight-absorbing surfaces that (250) more energy into
the Earth system and cause more warming.
241. (1) whole
(2) part
(3) material
(4) issue
(5) most
242. (1) raise
(2) brings
(3) refer
(4) stop
(5) cause
243. (1) sensed
(2) called
(3) nothing
(4) but
(5) term
244. (1) due
(2) results
(3) reason
(4) those
(5) because
245. (1) done
(2) known
(3) ruled
(4) bestowed
(5) said
246. (1) mastering
(2) sending
(3) melting
(4) calming
(5) increasing
247. (1) make-shift
(2) ceasing
(3) troubled
(4) perpetual
(5) absent
248. (1) dwindling
(2) manufactured
(3) descending
(4) generating
(5) supplied
249. (1) progress
(2) reduced
(3) existence
(4) midst
(5) absence
250. (1) repel
(2) waft
(3) monitor
(4) bring
(5) access
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