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General Knowledge Questions & Answers: History, Geography, Economy, Polity, Sports & Science


Latest General Knowledge Questions and Answers covering History, Geography, Economy, Polity, Sports and Science for all competitive exams.



General Knowledge Questions & Answers


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General Knowledge Questions & Answers – Complete GK for All Competitive Exams

General knowledge questions play a vital role in every exam, and this collection of gk questions and answers is specially prepared with the latest GK 2026 syllabus in mind. It includes general knowledge for competitive exams covering history GK questions, geography GK questions, polity GK questions, economy GK questions, science GK questions, and sports GK questions. These important GK MCQ sets are designed to strengthen your concepts, improve accuracy, and help you score higher in SSC, Banking, Railway, Defence, UPSC, State PSC, and other government exams.



General Knowledge Questions and Answers of History, Geography, Economy, Polity, Sports and Science

  


General Knowledge Previous Question Paper with Answers for all Exams

 



General Knowledge MCQs 2026 (With Answers)

History • Geography • Polity • Economy • Science • Sports




HISTORY MCQs (1–50)

1. Who is known as the Father of Indian History?
A) Megasthenes
B) Kalhana
C) Herodotus
D) Fa-Hien
Answer: B


2. The book Rajatarangini was written by:
A) Banabhatta
B) Kalhana
C) Panini
D) Patanjali
Answer: B


3. Indus Valley Civilization belonged to which age?
A) Iron Age
B) Stone Age
C) Bronze Age
D) Copper Age
Answer: C


4. The Great Bath is located at:
A) Harappa
B) Dholavira
C) Lothal
D) Mohenjo-daro
Answer: D


5. Harappa is situated in present-day:
A) India
B) Afghanistan
C) Pakistan
D) Iran
Answer: C


6. Who founded the Maurya Empire?
A) Bindusara
B) Ashoka
C) Chandragupta Maurya
D) Brihadratha
Answer: C


7. Chanakya was also known as:
A) Patanjali
B) Panini
C) Kautilya
D) Varahamihira
Answer: C


8. Ashoka adopted Buddhism after the:
A) Battle of Panipat
B) Battle of Kalinga
C) Battle of Plassey
D) Battle of Buxar
Answer: B


9. Capital of the Maurya Empire was:
A) Ujjain
B) Taxila
C) Rajgir
D) Pataliputra
Answer: D


10. The Lion Capital is located at:
A) Sanchi
B) Bodh Gaya
C) Sarnath
D) Kushinagar
Answer: C


11. Who wrote Arthashastra?
A) Panini
B) Kalhana
C) Kautilya
D) Banabhatta
Answer: C


12. The Gupta period is known as:
A) Dark Age
B) Silver Age
C) Golden Age
D) Bronze Age
Answer: C


13. Founder of the Gupta dynasty was:
A) Chandragupta I
B) Samudragupta
C) Sri Gupta
D) Skandagupta
Answer: C


14. Samudragupta’s achievements are described in:
A) Mehrauli inscription
B) Allahabad Pillar inscription
C) Junagarh inscription
D) Nashik inscription
Answer: B


15. Who was the Chinese traveler during Harsha’s reign?
A) Fa-Hien
B) I-Tsing
C) Hiuen Tsang
D) Marco Polo
Answer: C


16. Qutub Minar was started by:
A) Iltutmish
B) Alauddin Khilji
C) Qutbuddin Aibak
D) Balban
Answer: C


17. First woman ruler of Delhi Sultanate was:
A) Chand Bibi
B) Noor Jahan
C) Razia Sultana
D) Jodha Bai
Answer: C


18. Who founded the Mughal Empire?
A) Humayun
B) Babur
C) Akbar
D) Sher Shah
Answer: B


19. First Battle of Panipat was fought in:
A) 1526
B) 1556
C) 1761
D) 1757
Answer: A


20. Akbar’s policy of tolerance was known as:
A) Din-i-Ilahi
B) Zabt
C) Sulh-i-Kul
D) Iqta
Answer: C


21. Battle of Plassey was fought in:
A) 1764
B) 1757
C) 1761
D) 1772
Answer: B


22. Battle of Buxar was fought in:
A) 1757
B) 1761
C) 1764
D) 1784
Answer: C


23. Revolt of 1857 started from:
A) Delhi
B) Kanpur
C) Meerut
D) Jhansi
Answer: C


24. Last Mughal Emperor was:
A) Bahadur Shah I
B) Jahandar Shah
C) Bahadur Shah Zafar
D) Akbar II
Answer: C


25. Indian National Congress was founded in:
A) 1885
B) 1905
C) 1919
D) 1920
Answer: A


26. Founder of INC was:
A) Dadabhai Naoroji
B) A.O. Hume
C) Surendranath Banerjee
D) Gokhale
Answer: B


27. Partition of Bengal took place in:
A) 1905
B) 1911
C) 1919
D) 1927
Answer: A


28. Jallianwala Bagh massacre occurred in:
A) 1917
B) 1918
C) 1919
D) 1920
Answer: C


29. Non-Cooperation Movement began in:
A) 1917
B) 1919
C) 1920
D) 1922
Answer: C


30. Dandi March took place in:
A) 1927
B) 1929
C) 1930
D) 1932
Answer: C


31. Quit India Movement was launched in:
A) 1935
B) 1939
C) 1940
D) 1942
Answer: D


32. India got independence on:
A) 26 January 1950
B) 15 August 1947
C) 26 November 1949
D) 2 October 1947
Answer: B


33. Constitution of India came into force on:
A) 15 August 1947
B) 26 November 1949
C) 26 January 1950
D) 30 January 1948
Answer: C


34. Father of the Indian Constitution:
A) Jawaharlal Nehru
B) Mahatma Gandhi
C) B.R. Ambedkar
D) Rajendra Prasad
Answer: C


35. Drafting Committee Chairman was:
A) Nehru
B) Rajendra Prasad
C) Patel
D) B.R. Ambedkar
Answer: D


36. Simon Commission came to India in:
A) 1919
B) 1927
C) 1930
D) 1935
Answer: B


37. Cabinet Mission Plan came in:
A) 1942
B) 1945
C) 1946
D) 1947
Answer: C


38. Cripps Mission came in:
A) 1940
B) 1941
C) 1942
D) 1943
Answer: C


39. Mountbatten Plan announced in:
A) 1945
B) 1946
C) 1947
D) 1948
Answer: C


40. Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed in:
A) 1929
B) 1930
C) 1931
D) 1932
Answer: C


41. Poona Pact was signed in:
A) 1930
B) 1931
C) 1932
D) 1935
Answer: C


42. First President of India was:
A) S. Radhakrishnan
B) Zakir Husain
C) Rajendra Prasad
D) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
Answer: C


43. First Prime Minister of India:
A) Gandhi
B) Patel
C) Nehru
D) Rajagopalachari
Answer: C


44. INA was founded by:
A) Rash Behari Bose
B) Subhash Chandra Bose
C) Bhagat Singh
D) Lala Lajpat Rai
Answer: B


45. “Jai Hind” slogan was given by:
A) Gandhi
B) Patel
C) Subhash Bose
D) Nehru
Answer: C


46. First Railway in India started in:
A) 1853
B) 1857
C) 1861
D) 1875
Answer: A


47. First Railway route was:
A) Delhi–Kanpur
B) Mumbai–Thane
C) Howrah–Delhi
D) Chennai–Arakkonam
Answer: B


48. First newspaper in India:
A) Amrita Bazar Patrika
B) Hindu
C) Bengal Gazette
D) Times of India
Answer: C


49. Vernacular Press Act passed in:
A) 1857
B) 1861
C) 1878
D) 1885
Answer: C


50. Green Revolution in India was led by:
A) Verghese Kurien
B) M.S. Swaminathan
C) Norman Borlaug
D) C. Subramaniam
Answer: B



HISTORY MCQs (51–100)

(MCQ format with options A–D and correct answers)


51. Who introduced the Permanent Settlement in India?
A) Lord Wellesley
B) Lord Dalhousie
C) Lord Cornwallis
D) Lord Curzon
Answer: C


52. Doctrine of Lapse was introduced by:
A) Lord Canning
B) Lord Dalhousie
C) Lord Ripon
D) Lord Curzon
Answer: B


53. The Revolt of 1857 is also known as:
A) Sepoy Mutiny
B) First War of Independence
C) Great Rebellion
D) All of the above
Answer: D


54. Who was the Governor-General during the Revolt of 1857?
A) Lord Dalhousie
B) Lord Lytton
C) Lord Canning
D) Lord Ripon
Answer: C


55. Rani Lakshmibai was associated with:
A) Kanpur
B) Awadh
C) Jhansi
D) Gwalior
Answer: C


56. Leader of revolt in Kanpur was:
A) Kunwar Singh
B) Nana Sahib
C) Begum Hazrat Mahal
D) Tatya Tope
Answer: B


57. Leader of revolt in Awadh was:
A) Rani Lakshmibai
B) Kunwar Singh
C) Begum Hazrat Mahal
D) Nana Sahib
Answer: C


58. Kunwar Singh led the revolt in:
A) Jhansi
B) Awadh
C) Bihar
D) Kanpur
Answer: C


59. The Government of India Act, 1858 transferred power to:
A) East India Company
B) British Parliament
C) British Crown
D) Governor-General
Answer: C


60. Queen Victoria’s Proclamation was issued in:
A) 1857
B) 1858
C) 1861
D) 1878
Answer: B


61. First Viceroy of India was:
A) Lord Dalhousie
B) Lord Canning
C) Lord Mayo
D) Lord Ripon
Answer: B


62. Indian Councils Act 1861 introduced:
A) Federalism
B) Elections
C) Portfolio system
D) Budget system
Answer: C


63. Ilbert Bill controversy occurred during:
A) Lord Ripon
B) Lord Lytton
C) Lord Curzon
D) Lord Mayo
Answer: A


64. Vernacular Press Act was passed by:
A) Lord Ripon
B) Lord Lytton
C) Lord Curzon
D) Lord Mayo
Answer: B


65. Hunter Commission (1882) related to:
A) Police reforms
B) Education
C) Army reforms
D) Judiciary
Answer: B


66. Indian National Congress was formed mainly to:
A) Achieve independence immediately
B) Promote revolutionary activities
C) Create political awareness
D) Support British rule
Answer: C


67. The Moderate phase of INC lasted from:
A) 1885–1905
B) 1905–1917
C) 1917–1920
D) 1920–1930
Answer: A


68. Leader of Extremists was:
A) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
B) Dadabhai Naoroji
C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
D) Annie Besant
Answer: C


69. “Swaraj is my birthright” was said by:
A) Gandhi
B) Nehru
C) Tilak
D) Patel
Answer: C


70. Surat Split occurred in:
A) 1905
B) 1906
C) 1907
D) 1909
Answer: C


71. Partition of Bengal was annulled in:
A) 1907
B) 1909
C) 1911
D) 1913
Answer: C


72. Capital of British India was shifted from Calcutta to Delhi in:
A) 1905
B) 1909
C) 1911
D) 1916
Answer: C


73. Home Rule League was started in:
A) 1915
B) 1916
C) 1917
D) 1918
Answer: B


74. Home Rule League leaders were:
A) Gandhi & Nehru
B) Tilak & Annie Besant
C) Patel & Bose
D) Gokhale & Tilak
Answer: B


75. Champaran Satyagraha was related to:
A) Indigo workers
B) Cotton workers
C) Tea plantation workers
D) Peasants tax
Answer: A


76. Ahmedabad Mill Strike was related to:
A) Farmers
B) Peasants
C) Workers
D) Students
Answer: C


77. Kheda Satyagraha was related to:
A) Indigo tax
B) Land revenue
C) Salt tax
D) Forest tax
Answer: B


78. Rowlatt Act was passed in:
A) 1917
B) 1918
C) 1919
D) 1920
Answer: C


79. Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place at:
A) Lahore
B) Delhi
C) Amritsar
D) Ludhiana
Answer: C


80. Non-Cooperation Movement was withdrawn due to:
A) Simon Commission
B) Chauri Chaura incident
C) Jallianwala Bagh
D) Bardoli Satyagraha
Answer: B


81. Swaraj Party was formed in:
A) 1919
B) 1920
C) 1923
D) 1925
Answer: C


82. Swaraj Party leaders were:
A) Gandhi & Nehru
B) Patel & Rajendra Prasad
C) C.R. Das & Motilal Nehru
D) Bose & Tilak
Answer: C


83. Simon Commission came to India in:
A) 1925
B) 1927
C) 1928
D) 1929
Answer: B


84. “Simon Go Back” slogan was raised because:
A) Indians not included
B) Taxes were increased
C) Partition announced
D) Army issue
Answer: A


85. Nehru Report was prepared by:
A) Motilal Nehru
B) Jawaharlal Nehru
C) Tej Bahadur Sapru
D) Subhash Bose
Answer: A


86. Lahore Session of INC (1929) declared:
A) Dominion Status
B) Poorna Swaraj
C) Home Rule
D) Independence Day
Answer: B


87. Civil Disobedience Movement began in:
A) 1927
B) 1928
C) 1929
D) 1930
Answer: D


88. Salt Satyagraha started from:
A) Sabarmati to Dandi
B) Wardha to Daman
C) Ahmedabad to Surat
D) Porbandar to Diu
Answer: A


89. Gandhi–Irwin Pact was signed in:
A) 1930
B) 1931
C) 1932
D) 1933
Answer: B


90. First Round Table Conference held in:
A) 1929
B) 1930
C) 1931
D) 1932
Answer: B


91. Communal Award was announced in:
A) 1930
B) 1931
C) 1932
D) 1935
Answer: C


92. Poona Pact was signed between:
A) Gandhi and Ambedkar
B) Nehru and Patel
C) Bose and Jinnah
D) Gandhi and Irwin
Answer: A


93. Government of India Act 1935 introduced:
A) Dyarchy in provinces
B) Federal system
C) Provincial autonomy
D) All of the above
Answer: D


94. Provincial elections were held in:
A) 1935
B) 1936
C) 1937
D) 1939
Answer: C


95. Congress ministries resigned in:
A) 1937
B) 1938
C) 1939
D) 1940
Answer: C


96. August Offer was made in:
A) 1939
B) 1940
C) 1941
D) 1942
Answer: B


97. Cripps Mission came in:
A) 1940
B) 1941
C) 1942
D) 1943
Answer: C


98. Quit India Movement was launched at:
A) Lahore
B) Delhi
C) Wardha
D) Bombay
Answer: D


99. “Do or Die” slogan was given by:
A) Nehru
B) Patel
C) Subhash Bose
D) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer: D


100. Cabinet Mission Plan came in:
A) 1945
B) 1946
C) 1947
D) 1948
Answer: B



GEOGRAPHY MCQs (101–150)

(MCQ format with options A–D and correct answers)


101. The largest continent in the world is:
A) Africa
B) Europe
C) Asia
D) Australia
Answer: C


102. The smallest continent is:
A) Europe
B) Australia
C) Antarctica
D) South America
Answer: B


103. The largest ocean in the world is:
A) Atlantic Ocean
B) Indian Ocean
C) Arctic Ocean
D) Pacific Ocean
Answer: D


104. The longest river in the world is:
A) Amazon
B) Yangtze
C) Nile
D) Mississippi
Answer: C


105. The highest mountain peak in the world is:
A) K2
B) Kanchenjunga
C) Mount Everest
D) Nanga Parbat
Answer: C


106. The largest desert in the world is:
A) Thar
B) Sahara
C) Gobi
D) Kalahari
Answer: B


107. The Earth is slightly flattened at the poles; its shape is called:
A) Sphere
B) Ellipsoid
C) Geoid
D) Oblate
Answer: C


108. The imaginary line dividing Earth into Northern and Southern Hemispheres is:
A) Tropic of Cancer
B) Prime Meridian
C) Equator
D) Arctic Circle
Answer: C


109. The Prime Meridian passes through:
A) Paris
B) Rome
C) London
D) Greenwich
Answer: D


110. Indian Standard Time is based on which longitude?
A) 75°E
B) 82°E
C) 82.5°E
D) 90°E
Answer: C


111. Tropic of Cancer passes through how many Indian states?
A) 6
B) 7
C) 8
D) 9
Answer: C


112. The Tropic of Cancer does NOT pass through:
A) Rajasthan
B) Odisha
C) Madhya Pradesh
D) Gujarat
Answer: B


113. The Himalayan mountains are:
A) Block mountains
B) Residual mountains
C) Volcanic mountains
D) Fold mountains
Answer: D


114. The oldest mountain range in India is:
A) Himalayas
B) Aravalli
C) Vindhya
D) Satpura
Answer: B


115. The Deccan Plateau is located in:
A) Northern India
B) Eastern India
C) Southern India
D) Western India
Answer: C


116. Black soil is best suited for:
A) Wheat
B) Rice
C) Cotton
D) Sugarcane
Answer: C


117. Red soil gets its colour due to the presence of:
A) Aluminium
B) Iron oxide
C) Magnesium
D) Copper
Answer: B


118. Laterite soil is suitable for:
A) Wheat
B) Cotton
C) Tea and coffee
D) Rice
Answer: C


119. The longest river in India is:
A) Yamuna
B) Brahmaputra
C) Godavari
D) Ganga
Answer: D


120. River Ganga originates from:
A) Yamunotri
B) Gangotri Glacier
C) Kedarnath
D) Mansarovar
Answer: B


121. The confluence of Ganga and Yamuna is called:
A) Sangam
B) Triveni
C) Prayag
D) All of the above
Answer: D


122. The largest delta in the world is:
A) Nile Delta
B) Amazon Delta
C) Sundarbans Delta
D) Mississippi Delta
Answer: C


123. The river Brahmaputra originates in:
A) Nepal
B) India
C) Tibet
D) Bhutan
Answer: C


124. The river Narmada flows into:
A) Bay of Bengal
B) Arabian Sea
C) Indian Ocean
D) Gulf of Mannar
Answer: B


125. The river Godavari is also known as:
A) Dakshin Ganga
B) Vridha Ganga
C) South Yamuna
D) Both A and B
Answer: D


126. Chilika Lake is located in:
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Tamil Nadu
C) Odisha
D) West Bengal
Answer: C


127. The largest freshwater lake in India is:
A) Dal Lake
B) Wular Lake
C) Loktak Lake
D) Chilika Lake
Answer: B


128. The largest saltwater lake in India is:
A) Sambhar Lake
B) Chilika Lake
C) Pulicat Lake
D) Vembanad Lake
Answer: B


129. The highest dam in India is:
A) Bhakra Nangal
B) Hirakud
C) Tehri
D) Nagarjuna Sagar
Answer: C


130. The longest dam in India is:
A) Bhakra Nangal
B) Hirakud
C) Tehri
D) Sardar Sarovar
Answer: B


131. The wettest place on Earth is:
A) Cherrapunji
B) Mawsynram
C) Agumbe
D) Shillong
Answer: B


132. The coldest place in India is:
A) Leh
B) Kargil
C) Dras
D) Spiti
Answer: C


133. The largest island in the world is:
A) Madagascar
B) Borneo
C) Greenland
D) New Guinea
Answer: C


134. The largest plateau in the world is:
A) Deccan Plateau
B) Mexican Plateau
C) Brazilian Plateau
D) Tibetan Plateau
Answer: D


135. The longest mountain range in the world is:
A) Himalayas
B) Rockies
C) Andes
D) Alps
Answer: C


136. The Ring of Fire is located around:
A) Atlantic Ocean
B) Indian Ocean
C) Arctic Ocean
D) Pacific Ocean
Answer: D


137. The study of earthquakes is called:
A) Geology
B) Climatology
C) Seismology
D) Meteorology
Answer: C


138. The study of weather is known as:
A) Meteorology
B) Climatology
C) Ecology
D) Oceanography
Answer: A


139. The study of oceans is called:
A) Limnology
B) Oceanography
C) Hydrology
D) Ecology
Answer: B


140. The layer of atmosphere where ozone is found is:
A) Troposphere
B) Mesosphere
C) Thermosphere
D) Stratosphere
Answer: D


141. Trade winds blow from:
A) Equator to poles
B) Poles to equator
C) Tropics to equator
D) Equator to tropics
Answer: C


142. Monsoon winds are:
A) Permanent winds
B) Seasonal winds
C) Local winds
D) Cyclonic winds
Answer: B


143. Mangrove forests are found in:
A) Mountains
B) Plateaus
C) Deserts
D) Coastal deltas
Answer: D


144. Corals are formed in:
A) Cold seas
B) Deep oceans
C) Warm shallow seas
D) Rivers
Answer: C


145. The Great Barrier Reef is located in:
A) India
B) Indonesia
C) Australia
D) Philippines
Answer: C


146. The Suez Canal connects:
A) Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea
B) Atlantic and Pacific
C) Black Sea and Caspian Sea
D) Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal
Answer: A


147. The Panama Canal connects:
A) Indian and Pacific Ocean
B) Atlantic and Pacific Ocean
C) Atlantic and Indian Ocean
D) Arctic and Atlantic Ocean
Answer: B


148. The Strait of Hormuz connects:
A) Red Sea–Mediterranean
B) Persian Gulf–Arabian Sea
C) Black Sea–Aegean Sea
D) Baltic Sea–North Sea
Answer: B


149. The largest rainforest in the world is:
A) Congo
B) Sundarbans
C) Amazon
D) Taiga
Answer: C


150. The main cause of soil erosion is:
A) Afforestation
B) Over-irrigation
C) Deforestation
D) Crop rotation
Answer: C



GEOGRAPHY MCQs (151–200)


151. The Tropic of Capricorn passes through which continent?
A) Asia
B) Africa
C) Australia
D) South America
Answer: C


152. The Arctic Circle is located at:
A) 23½° N
B) 66½° N
C) 66½° S
D) 90° N
Answer: B


153. The Antarctic Circle is located at:
A) 23½° S
B) 66½° S
C) 90° S
D) 66½° N
Answer: B


154. The largest gulf in the world is:
A) Gulf of Oman
B) Gulf of Mexico
C) Persian Gulf
D) Gulf of Aden
Answer: B


155. The largest bay in the world is:
A) Hudson Bay
B) Bay of Bengal
C) Bay of Biscay
D) Bay of Japan
Answer: B


156. The deepest ocean trench in the world is:
A) Tonga Trench
B) Java Trench
C) Mariana Trench
D) Peru Trench
Answer: C


157. The deepest point on Earth is:
A) Java Trench
B) Challenger Deep
C) Mariana Point
D) Tonga Deep
Answer: B


158. The largest river basin in the world is:
A) Nile
B) Amazon
C) Mississippi
D) Congo
Answer: B


159. The largest river basin in India is:
A) Godavari
B) Brahmaputra
C) Krishna
D) Ganga
Answer: D


160. The river Damodar is known as:
A) Sorrow of Assam
B) Sorrow of Bengal
C) Sorrow of Bihar
D) Sorrow of Odisha
Answer: B


161. The river Hwang Ho is also known as:
A) Blue River
B) Yangtze
C) Yellow River
D) Pearl River
Answer: C


162. The river Yangtze flows in:
A) Japan
B) Korea
C) China
D) Thailand
Answer: C


163. The Volga River flows into:
A) Black Sea
B) Caspian Sea
C) Baltic Sea
D) Aral Sea
Answer: B


164. The Indus River originates from:
A) Mansarovar Lake
B) Yamunotri
C) Gangotri
D) Narmada Kund
Answer: A


165. The river Periyar flows into:
A) Arabian Sea
B) Bay of Bengal
C) Indian Ocean
D) Gulf of Mannar
Answer: A


166. The largest waterfall in the world is:
A) Niagara Falls
B) Angel Falls
C) Victoria Falls
D) Jog Falls
Answer: B


167. Jog Falls is located in:
A) Maharashtra
B) Karnataka
C) Kerala
D) Tamil Nadu
Answer: B


168. The highest waterfall in India is:
A) Jog Falls
B) Nohkalikai Falls
C) Dudhsagar Falls
D) Athirappilly Falls
Answer: B


169. The largest lagoon in India is:
A) Pulicat Lake
B) Chilika Lake
C) Vembanad Lake
D) Sambhar Lake
Answer: B


170. The only active volcano in India is located at:
A) Barren Island
B) Narcondam Island
C) Andaman Island
D) Nicobar Island
Answer: A


171. The Indian Desert is also called:
A) Sahara
B) Thar
C) Kalahari
D) Gobi
Answer: B


172. The Great Indian Desert lies in:
A) Gujarat only
B) Rajasthan only
C) Rajasthan and Gujarat
D) Rajasthan, Gujarat and Haryana
Answer: D


173. The highest peak in South India is:
A) Doddabetta
B) Anamudi
C) Mullayanagiri
D) Agasthyamalai
Answer: B


174. The Nilgiri Hills are located at the junction of:
A) Eastern and Western Ghats
B) Aravalli and Vindhya
C) Satpura and Vindhya
D) Himalaya and Plateau
Answer: A


175. The Western Ghats are also known as:
A) Sahyadri
B) Nilgiri
C) Anaimalai
D) Cardamom
Answer: A


176. The Eastern Ghats are:
A) Continuous
B) Higher than Western Ghats
C) Discontinuous
D) Volcanic
Answer: C


177. The highest peak of Western Ghats is:
A) Doddabetta
B) Anamudi
C) Kalsubai
D) Mullayanagiri
Answer: B


178. The highest peak of Eastern Ghats is:
A) Arma Konda
B) Mahendragiri
C) Javadi Hills
D) Shevaroy Hills
Answer: A


179. The main occupation in coastal areas is:
A) Agriculture
B) Mining
C) Fishing
D) Forestry
Answer: C


180. Tsunami is caused by:
A) Cyclone
B) Volcano
C) Earthquake under sea
D) Wind
Answer: C


181. The largest producer of tea in India is:
A) Kerala
B) Assam
C) Tamil Nadu
D) West Bengal
Answer: B


182. The largest producer of coffee in India is:
A) Kerala
B) Karnataka
C) Tamil Nadu
D) Andhra Pradesh
Answer: B


183. The Green Revolution is related to:
A) Industry
B) Agriculture
C) Transport
D) Irrigation
Answer: B


184. Blue Revolution is related to:
A) Milk
B) Crops
C) Fisheries
D) Poultry
Answer: C


185. White Revolution is related to:
A) Milk production
B) Fish
C) Eggs
D) Wheat
Answer: A


186. The largest producer of wheat in India is:
A) Madhya Pradesh
B) Punjab
C) Uttar Pradesh
D) Haryana
Answer: C


187. The largest producer of rice in India is:
A) Punjab
B) West Bengal
C) Andhra Pradesh
D) Tamil Nadu
Answer: B


188. The largest producer of sugarcane in India is:
A) Maharashtra
B) Karnataka
C) Tamil Nadu
D) Uttar Pradesh
Answer: D


189. The largest producer of cotton in India is:
A) Gujarat
B) Maharashtra
C) Telangana
D) Punjab
Answer: A


190. The largest coal producing state in India is:
A) Odisha
B) Jharkhand
C) Chhattisgarh
D) West Bengal
Answer: B


191. The largest iron ore producing state in India is:
A) Odisha
B) Jharkhand
C) Karnataka
D) Goa
Answer: A


192. The largest bauxite producing state in India is:
A) Gujarat
B) Maharashtra
C) Odisha
D) Jharkhand
Answer: C


193. The largest mica producing state in India is:
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Rajasthan
C) Jharkhand
D) Bihar
Answer: A


194. The largest petroleum producing state in India is:
A) Gujarat
B) Assam
C) Rajasthan
D) Maharashtra
Answer: A


195. Mumbai High is famous for:
A) Coal
B) Iron
C) Petroleum
D) Natural gas
Answer: C


196. The largest thermal power plant in India is:
A) Korba
B) Vindhyachal
C) Talcher
D) Singrauli
Answer: B


197. The largest solar park in India is:
A) Pavagada
B) Bhadla
C) Rewa
D) Kurnool
Answer: B


198. The largest wind power producer in India is:
A) Gujarat
B) Maharashtra
C) Rajasthan
D) Tamil Nadu
Answer: D


199. ISRO headquarters is located in:
A) Chennai
B) Hyderabad
C) Bengaluru
D) Thiruvananthapuram
Answer: C


200. The largest biosphere reserve in India is:
A) Nilgiri
B) Gulf of Mannar
C) Sundarbans
D) Great Nicobar
Answer: D



🇮🇳 POLITY MCQs (201–250)


201. The Constitution of India was adopted on:
A) 26 January 1950
B) 15 August 1947
C) 26 November 1949
D) 2 October 1949
Answer: C


202. The Constitution of India came into force on:
A) 15 August 1947
B) 26 January 1950
C) 26 November 1949
D) 30 January 1950
Answer: B


203. The Chairman of the Drafting Committee was:
A) Jawaharlal Nehru
B) Rajendra Prasad
C) B. R. Ambedkar
D) Sardar Patel
Answer: C


204. The Father of the Indian Constitution is:
A) Mahatma Gandhi
B) Jawaharlal Nehru
C) B. R. Ambedkar
D) Rajendra Prasad
Answer: C


205. The Indian Constitution is borrowed mainly from:
A) USA
B) UK
C) Ireland
D) All of these
Answer: D


206. The lengthiest written constitution in the world is of:
A) USA
B) UK
C) India
D) China
Answer: C


207. The Preamble declares India as:
A) Democratic Republic
B) Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
C) Sovereign Republic
D) Federal Republic
Answer: B


208. The words “Socialist” and “Secular” were added by:
A) 42nd Amendment
B) 44th Amendment
C) 52nd Amendment
D) 73rd Amendment
Answer: A


209. The President of the Constituent Assembly was:
A) Jawaharlal Nehru
B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
C) Rajendra Prasad
D) Sardar Patel
Answer: C


210. The Constitution originally had how many Articles?
A) 395
B) 448
C) 470
D) 500
Answer: A


211. Fundamental Rights are mentioned in:
A) Part II
B) Part III
C) Part IV
D) Part V
Answer: B


212. Right to Equality comes under Articles:
A) 12–35
B) 14–18
C) 19–22
D) 23–24
Answer: B


213. Right to Freedom is covered under Articles:
A) 14–18
B) 19–22
C) 23–24
D) 25–28
Answer: B


214. Right against Exploitation includes Articles:
A) 19–22
B) 23–24
C) 25–28
D) 29–30
Answer: B


215. Right to Freedom of Religion is under Articles:
A) 19–22
B) 23–24
C) 25–28
D) 29–30
Answer: C


216. Cultural and Educational Rights fall under Articles:
A) 23–24
B) 25–28
C) 29–30
D) 32–35
Answer: C


217. Right to Constitutional Remedies is Article:
A) 30
B) 31
C) 32
D) 35
Answer: C


218. The “Heart and Soul” of the Constitution is:
A) Article 14
B) Article 19
C) Article 21
D) Article 32
Answer: D


219. Fundamental Duties were added by:
A) 44th Amendment
B) 42nd Amendment
C) 52nd Amendment
D) 61st Amendment
Answer: B


220. At present, Fundamental Duties are:
A) 10
B) 11
C) 12
D) 13
Answer: B


221. Directive Principles are included in:
A) Part III
B) Part IV
C) Part V
D) Part VI
Answer: B


222. DPSPs are borrowed from:
A) USA
B) UK
C) Ireland
D) Canada
Answer: C


223. The Union Executive includes:
A) President only
B) Prime Minister only
C) President, Vice-President, Council of Ministers
D) Parliament
Answer: C


224. The real executive authority lies with:
A) President
B) Prime Minister
C) Chief Justice
D) Speaker
Answer: B


225. The President of India is elected for:
A) 4 years
B) 5 years
C) 6 years
D) 7 years
Answer: B


226. The Vice-President is elected for:
A) 4 years
B) 5 years
C) 6 years
D) 7 years
Answer: B


227. The ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha is:
A) President
B) Prime Minister
C) Vice-President
D) Speaker
Answer: C


228. The Lok Sabha is also known as:
A) Upper House
B) Council of States
C) House of the People
D) Legislative Council
Answer: C


229. Maximum strength of Lok Sabha is:
A) 500
B) 525
C) 545
D) 550
Answer: C


230. The term of Lok Sabha is:
A) 4 years
B) 5 years
C) 6 years
D) 7 years
Answer: B


231. The Rajya Sabha is a:
A) Permanent House
B) Temporary House
C) Dissolved House
D) State Assembly
Answer: A


232. The maximum strength of Rajya Sabha is:
A) 245
B) 250
C) 260
D) 275
Answer: B


233. Members of Rajya Sabha retire after:
A) 4 years
B) 5 years
C) 6 years
D) 2 years
Answer: C


234. The Speaker of Lok Sabha is elected by:
A) President
B) Prime Minister
C) Lok Sabha members
D) Chief Justice
Answer: C


235. Money Bill can be introduced only in:
A) Rajya Sabha
B) Lok Sabha
C) Either House
D) President’s office
Answer: B


236. The guardian of the Constitution is:
A) President
B) Prime Minister
C) Supreme Court
D) Parliament
Answer: C


237. The Chief Justice of India is appointed by:
A) Prime Minister
B) Parliament
C) President
D) Vice-President
Answer: C


238. The highest court of appeal in India is:
A) High Court
B) District Court
C) Supreme Court
D) Lok Adalat
Answer: C


239. The first Chief Justice of India was:
A) M. C. Setalvad
B) H. J. Kania
C) P. N. Bhagwati
D) A. N. Ray
Answer: B


240. The Comptroller and Auditor General is appointed by:
A) Prime Minister
B) Parliament
C) President
D) Supreme Court
Answer: C


241. The Attorney General of India is appointed by:
A) President
B) Prime Minister
C) Parliament
D) Chief Justice
Answer: A


242. Election Commission is provided under Article:
A) 320
B) 324
C) 326
D) 329
Answer: B


243. Universal Adult Franchise is mentioned in:
A) Article 324
B) Article 325
C) Article 326
D) Article 329
Answer: C


244. The minimum voting age in India is:
A) 21 years
B) 20 years
C) 19 years
D) 18 years
Answer: D


245. The voting age was reduced by:
A) 42nd Amendment
B) 44th Amendment
C) 61st Amendment
D) 73rd Amendment
Answer: C


246. Panchayati Raj was constitutionalized by:
A) 42nd Amendment
B) 52nd Amendment
C) 73rd Amendment
D) 74th Amendment
Answer: C


247. Urban Local Bodies were added by:
A) 73rd Amendment
B) 74th Amendment
C) 86th Amendment
D) 91st Amendment
Answer: B


248. The 86th Amendment relates to:
A) Voting age
B) Education
C) Anti-defection
D) GST
Answer: B


249. Right to Education is under Article:
A) 19
B) 21A
C) 32
D) 45
Answer: B


250. Anti-Defection Law is in:
A) Article 356
B) Schedule 8
C) Schedule 9
D) Tenth Schedule
Answer: D



🇮🇳 POLITY MCQs (251–300)


251. The emergency due to war or external aggression is called:
A) Financial Emergency
B) National Emergency
C) State Emergency
D) Constitutional Emergency
Answer: B


252. National Emergency is declared under Article:
A) 352
B) 356
C) 360
D) 365
Answer: A


253. President’s Rule in a state is under Article:
A) 352
B) 355
C) 356
D) 360
Answer: C


254. Financial Emergency is declared under Article:
A) 352
B) 356
C) 360
D) 365
Answer: C


255. During National Emergency, Fundamental Rights under Article 19:
A) Remain active
B) Are suspended
C) Are deleted
D) Are amended
Answer: B


256. The 44th Constitutional Amendment relates to:
A) Emergency provisions
B) Panchayati Raj
C) Anti-defection
D) Education
Answer: A


257. The Governor of a state is appointed by:
A) Chief Minister
B) Prime Minister
C) President
D) Chief Justice
Answer: C


258. The term of Governor is:
A) 4 years
B) 5 years
C) 6 years
D) Pleasure of President
Answer: D


259. The Chief Minister is appointed by:
A) President
B) Governor
C) Prime Minister
D) Legislature
Answer: B


260. The real executive power in a state lies with:
A) Governor
B) Chief Minister
C) President
D) Speaker
Answer: B


261. The State Legislature consists of:
A) Governor and Council
B) Governor and Assembly
C) Governor, Assembly and Council
D) Assembly only
Answer: C


262. The Legislative Council is also known as:
A) Vidhan Sabha
B) Vidhan Parishad
C) Lok Sabha
D) Rajya Sabha
Answer: B


263. The minimum age to become Chief Minister is:
A) 25 years
B) 30 years
C) 35 years
D) No minimum age
Answer: A


264. The High Court Judge is appointed by:
A) Governor
B) Chief Minister
C) President
D) Chief Justice of India
Answer: C


265. The first woman Governor of India was:
A) Sarojini Naidu
B) Indira Gandhi
C) Sucheta Kriplani
D) Vijayalakshmi Pandit
Answer: A


266. The Supreme Commander of Indian Armed Forces is:
A) Prime Minister
B) Defence Minister
C) President
D) Chief of Defence Staff
Answer: C


267. The Finance Commission is appointed every:
A) 3 years
B) 4 years
C) 5 years
D) 6 years
Answer: C


268. GST was implemented in India in:
A) 2016
B) 2017
C) 2018
D) 2019
Answer: B


269. GST Amendment is which Constitutional Amendment?
A) 100th
B) 101st
C) 102nd
D) 103rd
Answer: B


270. The Planning Commission was replaced by:
A) Finance Commission
B) NITI Aayog
C) GST Council
D) RBI
Answer: B


271. NITI Aayog was formed in:
A) 2014
B) 2015
C) 2016
D) 2017
Answer: B


272. The Chairman of NITI Aayog is:
A) President
B) Vice-President
C) Prime Minister
D) Finance Minister
Answer: C


273. The National Human Rights Commission was established in:
A) 1990
B) 1993
C) 1995
D) 2000
Answer: B


274. The Right to Property is now:
A) Fundamental Right
B) Legal Right
C) Natural Right
D) Constitutional Right
Answer: B


275. The Right to Property is under Article:
A) 19
B) 21
C) 300A
D) 31
Answer: C


276. The 52nd Amendment Act deals with:
A) Panchayati Raj
B) Anti-defection
C) Emergency
D) Education
Answer: B


277. The Official Language of the Union is:
A) English
B) Hindi
C) Hindi in Devanagari script
D) Sanskrit
Answer: C


278. The language of the Supreme Court is:
A) Hindi
B) English
C) Both
D) Sanskrit
Answer: B


279. The number of schedules in the Constitution is:
A) 8
B) 10
C) 12
D) 14
Answer: C


280. The Tenth Schedule relates to:
A) Languages
B) Anti-defection
C) Tribal areas
D) Land reforms
Answer: B


281. The Eighth Schedule contains:
A) Fundamental Rights
B) State List
C) Official Languages
D) Emergency provisions
Answer: C


282. The Union List is in Schedule:
A) 6th
B) 7th
C) 8th
D) 9th
Answer: B


283. Residuary powers lie with:
A) States
B) Concurrent List
C) Union
D) President
Answer: C


284. The Supreme Court can issue how many writs?
A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7
Answer: B


285. Habeas Corpus means:
A) To punish
B) To produce the body
C) To stop work
D) To command
Answer: B


286. Which writ is issued to stop illegal activity of lower court?
A) Mandamus
B) Certiorari
C) Prohibition
D) Quo Warranto
Answer: C


287. Which writ questions authority of a public office holder?
A) Habeas Corpus
B) Mandamus
C) Certiorari
D) Quo Warranto
Answer: D


288. The Supreme Court has power of Judicial Review borrowed from:
A) UK
B) USA
C) Ireland
D) France
Answer: B


289. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed like:
A) Governor
B) Judge of Supreme Court
C) Prime Minister
D) President
Answer: B


290. The Lok Sabha Secretariat works under:
A) President
B) Prime Minister
C) Speaker
D) Parliament
Answer: C


291. The concept of Single Citizenship is borrowed from:
A) USA
B) UK
C) Canada
D) France
Answer: B


292. The concept of Federalism is borrowed from:
A) UK
B) USA
C) Ireland
D) France
Answer: B


293. The Directive Principles aim to establish:
A) Capitalism
B) Socialism
C) Welfare State
D) Communism
Answer: C


294. The 9th Schedule protects laws from:
A) Parliament
B) Judiciary
C) President
D) Election Commission
Answer: B


295. The President can dissolve Lok Sabha on advice of:
A) Speaker
B) Chief Justice
C) Prime Minister
D) Vice-President
Answer: C


296. The Budget is presented by:
A) Prime Minister
B) Finance Minister
C) Speaker
D) President
Answer: B


297. The term “Cabinet” is mentioned in Constitution under Article:
A) 74
B) 75
C) 76
D) 77
Answer: A


298. The Union Public Service Commission is under Article:
A) 315
B) 320
C) 323
D) 324
Answer: A


299. The Sarkaria Commission is related to:
A) Election reforms
B) Centre–State relations
C) Finance reforms
D) Judicial reforms
Answer: B


300. The Constitution of India is a:
A) Federal Constitution
B) Unitary Constitution
C) Quasi-federal Constitution
D) Rigid Constitution
Answer: C



ECONOMY MCQs (301–350)


301. Economics is the study of:
A) Wealth
B) Welfare
C) Choice and scarcity
D) Trade
Answer: C


302. Father of Economics is:
A) Alfred Marshall
B) Adam Smith
C) Keynes
D) Ricardo
Answer: B


303. The book Wealth of Nations was written by:
A) Karl Marx
B) Adam Smith
C) Keynes
D) Marshall
Answer: B


304. Microeconomics deals with:
A) National income
B) Inflation
C) Individual units
D) Economic growth
Answer: C


305. Macroeconomics deals with:
A) Individual consumer
B) Firm
C) Entire economy
D) Market price
Answer: C


306. GDP stands for:
A) Gross Domestic Product
B) General Development Product
C) Global Domestic Product
D) Gross Development Product
Answer: A


307. GNP includes:
A) Domestic income only
B) National income only
C) GDP + Net factor income from abroad
D) GDP – Depreciation
Answer: C


308. National Income is calculated by how many methods?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
Answer: B


309. Which is NOT a method of calculating National Income?
A) Income method
B) Expenditure method
C) Production method
D) Saving method
Answer: D


310. Per Capita Income =
A) National Income / Population
B) GDP / Population
C) GNP / Population
D) NNP / Population
Answer: A


311. Inflation means:
A) Fall in prices
B) Rise in prices
C) Stability of prices
D) Fall in demand
Answer: B


312. Deflation means:
A) Rise in prices
B) Fall in prices
C) Rise in income
D) Increase in supply
Answer: B


313. Stagflation refers to:
A) Inflation + growth
B) Inflation + unemployment
C) Deflation + growth
D) Inflation + prosperity
Answer: B


314. Repo rate is decided by:
A) Finance Ministry
B) SEBI
C) RBI
D) NITI Aayog
Answer: C


315. Reverse repo rate means:
A) RBI lends to banks
B) Banks lend to RBI
C) RBI lends to government
D) Banks lend to public
Answer: B


316. Monetary policy is formulated by:
A) Government
B) RBI
C) Parliament
D) SEBI
Answer: B


317. Fiscal policy is formulated by:
A) RBI
B) Finance Ministry
C) NITI Aayog
D) SEBI
Answer: B


318. Direct tax example is:
A) GST
B) Customs duty
C) Income tax
D) Excise duty
Answer: C


319. Indirect tax example is:
A) Income tax
B) Corporation tax
C) GST
D) Wealth tax
Answer: C


320. GST was implemented from:
A) 1 April 2016
B) 1 July 2017
C) 1 April 2017
D) 15 August 2017
Answer: B


321. GST Council is chaired by:
A) Prime Minister
B) Finance Minister
C) RBI Governor
D) President
Answer: B


322. The base year of GDP (current) is:
A) 2004–05
B) 2010–11
C) 2011–12
D) 2015–16
Answer: C


323. The largest contributor to India’s GDP is:
A) Agriculture
B) Industry
C) Services
D) Mining
Answer: C


324. Green Revolution increased production of:
A) Rice
B) Wheat
C) Pulses
D) Oilseeds
Answer: B


325. White Revolution is associated with:
A) Crops
B) Milk
C) Fish
D) Poultry
Answer: B


326. Blue Revolution is related to:
A) Agriculture
B) Fisheries
C) Dairy
D) Poultry
Answer: B


327. Yellow Revolution relates to:
A) Oilseeds
B) Pulses
C) Cotton
D) Fruits
Answer: A


328. Operation Flood is related to:
A) Agriculture
B) Milk
C) Fisheries
D) Irrigation
Answer: B


329. NABARD was established in:
A) 1980
B) 1981
C) 1982
D) 1983
Answer: C


330. RBI was established in:
A) 1930
B) 1934
C) 1935
D) 1947
Answer: C


331. RBI is nationalized in:
A) 1947
B) 1948
C) 1949
D) 1950
Answer: C


332. The headquarters of RBI is at:
A) Delhi
B) Mumbai
C) Kolkata
D) Chennai
Answer: B


333. The first Governor of RBI was:
A) C. D. Deshmukh
B) Osborne Smith
C) Benegal Rama Rau
D) R. N. Malhotra
Answer: B


334. The first Indian Governor of RBI was:
A) Osborne Smith
B) C. D. Deshmukh
C) R. N. Malhotra
D) Y. V. Reddy
Answer: B


335. SEBI was established in:
A) 1988
B) 1990
C) 1992
D) 1995
Answer: C


336. The headquarters of SEBI is:
A) Delhi
B) Mumbai
C) Chennai
D) Kolkata
Answer: B


337. NPA stands for:
A) National Payment Account
B) Non-Performing Asset
C) Net Profit Account
D) New Policy Act
Answer: B


338. CRR is maintained with:
A) Government
B) RBI
C) Banks
D) SEBI
Answer: B


339. SLR is maintained in the form of:
A) Cash only
B) Gold only
C) Approved securities
D) Foreign currency
Answer: C


340. The value of Indian currency is issued by:
A) Finance Ministry
B) RBI
C) Parliament
D) SEBI
Answer: B


341. Devaluation means:
A) Increase in value of currency
B) Decrease in value of currency
C) Printing currency
D) Demonetization
Answer: B


342. Demonetization was announced in India in:
A) 2014
B) 2015
C) 2016
D) 2017
Answer: C


343. Balance of Trade means:
A) Export – Import
B) Import – Export
C) Total trade
D) Invisible trade
Answer: A


344. Balance of Payments includes:
A) Visible items only
B) Invisible items only
C) Capital account only
D) All economic transactions
Answer: D


345. Fiscal deficit equals:
A) Total revenue – Total expenditure
B) Total expenditure – Total revenue
C) Borrowings only
D) Tax revenue only
Answer: B


346. Primary deficit equals:
A) Fiscal deficit – Interest payments
B) Revenue deficit – Capital deficit
C) Budget deficit – Interest
D) Fiscal deficit + Interest
Answer: A


347. The largest source of government revenue is:
A) Income tax
B) GST
C) Corporate tax
D) Customs duty
Answer: B


348. India’s first Five Year Plan started in:
A) 1947
B) 1950
C) 1951
D) 1952
Answer: C


349. Planning Commission was established in:
A) 1947
B) 1950
C) 1951
D) 1952
Answer: B


350. The main objective of economic planning is:
A) Profit
B) Growth with equity
C) Industrialization
D) Employment only
Answer: B



ECONOMY MCQs (351–380)


351. Revenue deficit occurs when:
A) Revenue receipts > Revenue expenditure
B) Revenue expenditure > Revenue receipts
C) Capital receipts > Capital expenditure
D) Borrowings increase
Answer: B


352. Capital expenditure creates:
A) Liability only
B) Assets only
C) Assets and reduces liabilities
D) No effect
Answer: C


353. Disinvestment means:
A) Buying shares
B) Selling government stake
C) Nationalization
D) Privatization of banks
Answer: B


354. LPG reforms were introduced in India in:
A) 1989
B) 1990
C) 1991
D) 1992
Answer: C


355. Liberalization means:
A) Increasing controls
B) Reducing government restrictions
C) Nationalization
D) Tax increase
Answer: B


356. Privatization means:
A) Government ownership
B) Private ownership
C) Transfer of ownership to private sector
D) Joint ownership
Answer: C


357. Globalization refers to:
A) Domestic trade
B) International integration
C) Import restriction
D) Nationalization
Answer: B


358. FDI stands for:
A) Foreign Development Investment
B) Foreign Direct Investment
C) Fiscal Development Investment
D) Foreign Debt Investment
Answer: B


359. FPI stands for:
A) Foreign Portfolio Investment
B) Foreign Private Investment
C) Foreign Public Investment
D) Fiscal Policy Investment
Answer: A


360. The World Bank headquarters is in:
A) New York
B) Paris
C) Washington DC
D) Geneva
Answer: C


361. IMF headquarters is in:
A) London
B) Washington DC
C) Paris
D) Geneva
Answer: B


362. WTO was established in:
A) 1993
B) 1994
C) 1995
D) 1996
Answer: C


363. WTO headquarters is in:
A) New York
B) Geneva
C) Paris
D) Rome
Answer: B


364. The BRICS Bank is officially known as:
A) World Bank
B) Asian Development Bank
C) New Development Bank
D) IMF
Answer: C


365. NITI Aayog replaced Planning Commission in:
A) 2014
B) 2015
C) 2016
D) 2017
Answer: B


366. The largest employer in India is:
A) Railways
B) Army
C) Post Office
D) Banks
Answer: A


367. Minimum Support Price is announced by:
A) RBI
B) Finance Ministry
C) CACP
D) NITI Aayog
Answer: C


368. MSP is approved by:
A) RBI
B) Parliament
C) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
D) President
Answer: C


369. Public Distribution System deals with:
A) Fuel
B) Fertilizer
C) Food grains
D) Seeds
Answer: C


370. Food Corporation of India was established in:
A) 1960
B) 1964
C) 1965
D) 1968
Answer: B


371. Poverty line in India is estimated by:
A) RBI
B) NITI Aayog
C) Planning Commission (earlier)
D) Both B and C
Answer: D


372. Unemployment where skills do not match jobs is called:
A) Seasonal
B) Disguised
C) Structural
D) Cyclical
Answer: C


373. Disguised unemployment is mainly found in:
A) Industry
B) Agriculture
C) Services
D) Mining
Answer: B


374. Inflation caused by excess demand is called:
A) Cost-push inflation
B) Demand-pull inflation
C) Creeping inflation
D) Hyperinflation
Answer: B


375. Cost-push inflation is due to:
A) Increased demand
B) Increased production cost
C) Excess money supply
D) Tax reduction
Answer: B


376. Hyperinflation means:
A) Mild inflation
B) Very high inflation
C) Negative inflation
D) Stable prices
Answer: B


377. Repo rate increase will:
A) Increase money supply
B) Decrease money supply
C) No effect
D) Increase inflation
Answer: B


378. Cashless economy means:
A) No banks
B) Only online transactions
C) No currency
D) No RBI
Answer: B


379. Financial inclusion means:
A) Banking for rich
B) Banking access to all
C) Only savings
D) Only loans
Answer: B


380. Jan Dhan Yojana was launched in:
A) 2012
B) 2013
C) 2014
D) 2015
Answer: C



SCIENCE MCQs (381–430)


PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & BIOLOGY


381. The SI unit of force is:
A) Joule
B) Newton
C) Watt
D) Pascal
Answer: B


382. Speed of light in vacuum is:
A) 3 × 10⁶ m/s
B) 3 × 10⁷ m/s
C) 3 × 10⁸ m/s
D) 3 × 10⁹ m/s
Answer: C


383. Unit of electric current is:
A) Volt
B) Ohm
C) Ampere
D) Watt
Answer: C


384. Instrument used to measure electric current:
A) Voltmeter
B) Ammeter
C) Galvanometer
D) Ohmmeter
Answer: B


385. Unit of resistance is:
A) Ampere
B) Volt
C) Ohm
D) Coulomb
Answer: C


386. Ohm’s law states:
A) V ∝ I
B) I ∝ R
C) V ∝ R
D) I ∝ 1/R
Answer: A


387. The device used to convert AC to DC:
A) Transformer
B) Rectifier
C) Capacitor
D) Inductor
Answer: B


388. The unit of frequency is:
A) Newton
B) Joule
C) Hertz
D) Decibel
Answer: C


389. Sound cannot travel through:
A) Solid
B) Liquid
C) Gas
D) Vacuum
Answer: D


390. The loudness of sound depends on:
A) Frequency
B) Wavelength
C) Amplitude
D) Velocity
Answer: C


391. The human ear can hear sound between:
A) 10–10,000 Hz
B) 20–20,000 Hz
C) 50–50,000 Hz
D) 100–100,000 Hz
Answer: B


392. The bending of light is called:
A) Reflection
B) Refraction
C) Dispersion
D) Diffraction
Answer: B


393. Splitting of white light is called:
A) Reflection
B) Refraction
C) Dispersion
D) Scattering
Answer: C


394. The image formed by a plane mirror is:
A) Real and inverted
B) Virtual and inverted
C) Virtual and erect
D) Real and erect
Answer: C


395. The focal length of a concave mirror is:
A) Positive
B) Negative
C) Zero
D) Infinite
Answer: B


396. The unit of power is:
A) Joule
B) Watt
C) Newton
D) Pascal
Answer: B


397. The chemical symbol of Sodium is:
A) So
B) Sd
C) Na
D) Sn
Answer: C


398. The pH value of pure water is:
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8
Answer: C


399. Acid turns blue litmus into:
A) Blue
B) Red
C) Green
D) Yellow
Answer: B


400. Base turns red litmus into:
A) Blue
B) Red
C) Yellow
D) Green
Answer: A


401. Common salt chemical formula is:
A) Na₂CO₃
B) NaCl
C) NaOH
D) HCl
Answer: B


402. The gas used in LPG is:
A) Methane
B) Butane
C) Propane & Butane
D) Ethane
Answer: C


403. The hardest natural substance is:
A) Gold
B) Iron
C) Diamond
D) Platinum
Answer: C


404. Rusting of iron requires:
A) Oxygen only
B) Water only
C) Oxygen and water
D) Carbon dioxide
Answer: C


405. The process of plants making food is:
A) Respiration
B) Transpiration
C) Photosynthesis
D) Germination
Answer: C


406. Chlorophyll is present in:
A) Root
B) Stem
C) Leaf
D) Flower
Answer: C


407. The gas released during photosynthesis:
A) Carbon dioxide
B) Oxygen
C) Nitrogen
D) Hydrogen
Answer: B


408. The powerhouse of the cell is:
A) Nucleus
B) Ribosome
C) Mitochondria
D) Lysosome
Answer: C


409. The largest organ in human body is:
A) Heart
B) Brain
C) Liver
D) Skin
Answer: D


410. Normal human body temperature is:
A) 35°C
B) 36°C
C) 37°C
D) 38°C
Answer: C


411. Blood group discovered by:
A) Fleming
B) Mendel
C) Landsteiner
D) Watson
Answer: C


412. Vitamin C deficiency causes:
A) Rickets
B) Scurvy
C) Beriberi
D) Night blindness
Answer: B


413. Night blindness is caused by deficiency of:
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin D
Answer: A


414. The smallest bone in human body is:
A) Stapes
B) Femur
C) Ulna
D) Tibia
Answer: A


415. The largest bone in human body is:
A) Humerus
B) Tibia
C) Femur
D) Pelvis
Answer: C


416. The normal pH of blood is:
A) 6.8
B) 7.0
C) 7.4
D) 8.0
Answer: C


417. DNA stands for:
A) Deoxyribo Nucleic Acid
B) Deoxyribose Nuclear Acid
C) Double Nitrogen Acid
D) Dynamic Nuclear Acid
Answer: A


418. RNA stands for:
A) Ribose Nucleic Acid
B) Ribosome Nucleic Acid
C) Reactive Nucleic Acid
D) Rapid Nuclear Acid
Answer: A


419. The study of heredity is called:
A) Ecology
B) Genetics
C) Botany
D) Zoology
Answer: B


420. The father of genetics is:
A) Darwin
B) Mendel
C) Watson
D) Crick
Answer: B


421. The SI unit of temperature is:
A) Celsius
B) Fahrenheit
C) Kelvin
D) Joule
Answer: C


422. Boiling point of water is:
A) 90°C
B) 95°C
C) 100°C
D) 110°C
Answer: C


423. The gas used in fire extinguishers is:
A) Oxygen
B) Nitrogen
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Hydrogen
Answer: C


424. Antibiotics kill:
A) Virus
B) Bacteria
C) Fungi
D) Protozoa
Answer: B


425. Penicillin was discovered by:
A) Newton
B) Darwin
C) Fleming
D) Pasteur
Answer: C


426. The chemical formula of water is:
A) H₂O
B) H₂O₂
C) HO₂
D) H₃O
Answer: A


427. The gas essential for respiration is:
A) Nitrogen
B) Hydrogen
C) Carbon dioxide
D) Oxygen
Answer: D


428. The smallest unit of life is:
A) Tissue
B) Organ
C) Cell
D) Atom
Answer: C


429. The study of plants is called:
A) Zoology
B) Biology
C) Botany
D) Ecology
Answer: C


430. The study of animals is called:
A) Botany
B) Ecology
C) Zoology
D) Genetics
Answer: C



SPORTS MCQs (431–500)


🏆 SPORTS GENERAL KNOWLEDGE MCQs


431. Hockey is the national sport of India?
A) Yes
B) No
C) Partially
D) Declared recently
Answer: B


432. National sport of India officially is:
A) Hockey
B) Cricket
C) Kabaddi
D) No official national sport
Answer: D


433. Olympic Games are held after every:
A) 2 years
B) 3 years
C) 4 years
D) 5 years
Answer: C


434. The first modern Olympic Games were held in:
A) London
B) Paris
C) Athens
D) Rome
Answer: C


435. Olympic symbol has how many rings?
A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7
Answer: B


436. The five Olympic rings represent:
A) Continents
B) Oceans
C) Countries
D) Games
Answer: A


437. Olympic motto is:
A) Play Fair
B) Faster, Higher, Stronger
C) Unity in Sports
D) Sports for All
Answer: B


438. Asian Games are held every:
A) 2 years
B) 3 years
C) 4 years
D) 5 years
Answer: C


439. First Asian Games were held in:
A) Tokyo
B) Delhi
C) Bangkok
D) Beijing
Answer: B


440. Commonwealth Games started in:
A) 1910
B) 1920
C) 1930
D) 1948
Answer: C


441. Cricket World Cup is organized by:
A) ICC
B) BCCI
C) ACC
D) ECB
Answer: A


442. First Cricket World Cup was held in:
A) 1971
B) 1973
C) 1975
D) 1977
Answer: C


443. IPL started in:
A) 2006
B) 2007
C) 2008
D) 2009
Answer: C


444. Number of players in cricket team:
A) 9
B) 10
C) 11
D) 12
Answer: C


445. Duration of Test match:
A) 3 days
B) 4 days
C) 5 days
D) 6 days
Answer: C


446. Father of Indian Hockey:
A) Dhyan Chand
B) Balbir Singh
C) Roop Singh
D) Leslie Claudius
Answer: A


447. Dhyan Chand was known as:
A) Goal Machine
B) Wizard of Hockey
C) Flying Sikh
D) Golden Boy
Answer: B


448. Wimbledon is related to:
A) Badminton
B) Tennis
C) Cricket
D) Golf
Answer: B


449. Thomas Cup is related to:
A) Tennis
B) Badminton
C) Hockey
D) Football
Answer: B


450. Uber Cup is related to:
A) Men’s Badminton
B) Women’s Badminton
C) Mixed Badminton
D) Junior Badminton
Answer: B


451. FIFA World Cup is related to:
A) Hockey
B) Cricket
C) Football
D) Tennis
Answer: C


452. FIFA headquarters is in:
A) Paris
B) Zurich
C) London
D) Rome
Answer: B


453. First FIFA World Cup was held in:
A) 1928
B) 1930
C) 1932
D) 1934
Answer: B


454. Number of players in football team:
A) 9
B) 10
C) 11
D) 12
Answer: C


455. Duration of football match:
A) 60 minutes
B) 70 minutes
C) 80 minutes
D) 90 minutes
Answer: D


456. Red card in football means:
A) Warning
B) Free kick
C) Player out
D) Goal awarded
Answer: C


457. Grand Slam tournaments in tennis are:
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Answer: B


458. Australian Open is played on:
A) Grass
B) Clay
C) Hard court
D) Synthetic
Answer: C


459. French Open is played on:
A) Grass
B) Clay
C) Hard court
D) Carpet
Answer: B


460. Davis Cup is related to:
A) Cricket
B) Football
C) Tennis
D) Hockey
Answer: C


461. Kabaddi originated in:
A) India
B) Iran
C) China
D) Japan
Answer: A


462. Pro Kabaddi League started in:
A) 2012
B) 2013
C) 2014
D) 2015
Answer: C


463. National game of Bangladesh:
A) Cricket
B) Football
C) Kabaddi
D) Hockey
Answer: C


464. Polo originated in:
A) England
B) India
C) Iran
D) China
Answer: C


465. Golf originated in:
A) USA
B) England
C) Scotland
D) Ireland
Answer: C


466. Chess originated in:
A) China
B) Persia
C) India
D) Greece
Answer: C


467. World Chess Federation is called:
A) ICC
B) FIFA
C) FIDE
D) IOC
Answer: C


468. First World Chess Champion:
A) Kasparov
B) Anand
C) Steinitz
D) Fischer
Answer: C


469. Viswanathan Anand is from:
A) Delhi
B) Mumbai
C) Chennai
D) Kolkata
Answer: C


470. Flying Sikh refers to:
A) Milkha Singh
B) P.T. Usha
C) Neeraj Chopra
D) Abhinav Bindra
Answer: A


471. Neeraj Chopra is related to:
A) Boxing
B) Wrestling
C) Javelin Throw
D) Shooting
Answer: C


472. First Indian Olympic gold medalist (individual):
A) Abhinav Bindra
B) Milkha Singh
C) Neeraj Chopra
D) Karnam Malleswari
Answer: A


473. Olympic gold medal in javelin was won by Neeraj Chopra in:
A) Rio 2016
B) Tokyo 2020
C) Paris 2024
D) London 2012
Answer: B


474. Mary Kom is related to:
A) Wrestling
B) Boxing
C) Shooting
D) Weightlifting
Answer: B


475. First Indian woman Olympic medalist:
A) Mary Kom
B) P.T. Usha
C) Karnam Malleswari
D) Sakshi Malik
Answer: C


476. Sachin Tendulkar is known as:
A) Master Blaster
B) Little Master
C) Run Machine
D) God of Cricket
Answer: D


477. Highest individual score in ODI cricket:
A) 200
B) 209
C) 264
D) 275
Answer: C


478. Player who scored 100 international centuries:
A) Ricky Ponting
B) Virat Kohli
C) Sachin Tendulkar
D) Brian Lara
Answer: C


479. Badminton player known as “Ace of Pace”:
A) P. Gopichand
B) Prakash Padukone
C) Kidambi Srikanth
D) Saina Nehwal
Answer: B


480. First Indian to win All England Badminton:
A) Saina Nehwal
B) P. Gopichand
C) Prakash Padukone
D) Sindhu
Answer: C


481. P.V. Sindhu is related to:
A) Tennis
B) Badminton
C) Boxing
D) Wrestling
Answer: B


482. ICC headquarters is in:
A) London
B) Dubai
C) Mumbai
D) Singapore
Answer: B


483. BCCI headquarters is in:
A) Delhi
B) Mumbai
C) Chennai
D) Kolkata
Answer: B


484. Ranji Trophy is related to:
A) Hockey
B) Football
C) Cricket
D) Tennis
Answer: C


485. Santosh Trophy is related to:
A) Hockey
B) Football
C) Cricket
D) Kabaddi
Answer: B


486. Durand Cup is related to:
A) Cricket
B) Hockey
C) Football
D) Tennis
Answer: C


487. Dronacharya Award is given for:
A) Players
B) Coaches
C) Umpires
D) Managers
Answer: B


488. Arjuna Award is given for:
A) Coaches
B) Lifetime achievement
C) Sports excellence
D) Referees
Answer: C


489. Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award is given for:
A) Coaching
B) Lifetime sports achievement
C) Annual sports excellence
D) Administration
Answer: C


490. Olympic flame is lit at:
A) Rome
B) Athens
C) Olympia
D) Paris
Answer: C


491. Commonwealth Games Federation headquarters:
A) London
B) Birmingham
C) Manchester
D) Sydney
Answer: A


492. The term “Hat-trick” is related to:
A) Cricket
B) Football
C) Hockey
D) All of these
Answer: D


493. World Anti-Doping Agency headquarters:
A) Paris
B) Geneva
C) Montreal
D) Vienna
Answer: C


494. First Indian to win Olympic medal in shooting:
A) Abhinav Bindra
B) Rajyavardhan Rathore
C) Gagan Narang
D) Vijay Kumar
Answer: B


495. Boxing Day Test is played on:
A) 24 December
B) 25 December
C) 26 December
D) 27 December
Answer: C


496. India won its first Cricket World Cup in:
A) 1979
B) 1983
C) 1987
D) 1992
Answer: B


497. Number of gold medals won by India in Tokyo Olympics 2020:
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer: A


498. Formula One races are called:
A) Matches
B) Heats
C) Grands Prix
D) Circuits
Answer: C


499. MotoGP is related to:
A) Car racing
B) Bike racing
C) Cycling
D) Karting
Answer: B


500. Olympic mascot represents:
A) Host country culture
B) Animals only
C) Sports only
D) Sponsors
Answer: A



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