"Preparing for CLAT 2027? This complete full-length mock test (exactly 120 questions, matching the latest CLAT pattern) covers all 5 sections: English Language (24 Qs), Current Affairs & GK (28 Qs), Legal Reasoning (30 Qs), Logical Reasoning (26 Qs), and Quantitative Techniques (12 Qs).
Each section comes with passage-based questions, correct answers, and step-by-step explanations to help you analyze mistakes and improve speed/accuracy. Ideal for timed practice, self-assessment, and understanding high-yield topics.
Download-ready format – solve offline, track progress, and aim for top NLUs! Scroll down for section-wise sets. Share your score in comments and tag friends prepping for CLAT!
CLAT Full Mock Test: 120 Questions with Answers
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Practice Instructions for Aspirants:
- Time limit: 20–25 minutes (simulates real CLAT pacing).
- All questions are based on passages (300–450 words equivalent, shortened here for brevity).
- Score yourself: +1 per correct, -0.25 per wrong.
Passage 1 (Theme: Climate Change & Policy – High-Frequency Topic)
The climate crisis is not just an environmental issue but a profound economic and social challenge. Governments worldwide must transition from fossil fuels to renewables, yet political inertia and corporate lobbying delay action. Individual efforts, while commendable, pale against the need for systemic reforms like carbon pricing and international accords. Without bold policies, vulnerable communities will bear the brunt of rising seas and extreme weather.
- What is the main idea of the passage? A) Individual actions solve climate issues B) Systemic reforms are essential over personal efforts C) Climate change is exaggerated D) Corporate lobbying benefits the environment
- The author's tone towards political inertia is: A) Approving B) Critical C) Neutral D) Enthusiastic
- The word "commendable" most nearly means: A) Worthless B) Praiseworthy C) Excessive D) Ignorant
- What can be inferred about vulnerable communities? A) They cause most emissions B) They suffer disproportionately from inaction C) They benefit from lobbying D) They oppose renewables
- Which statement weakens the author's argument? A) Individual recycling has reduced global emissions by 50% B) International accords have failed historically C) Carbon pricing increases inequality D) Renewables are more expensive than fossils
Answers & Explanations for Passage 1:
- B – The focus is on needing systemic changes beyond individuals.
- B – Words like "delay action" show criticism.
- B – Context praises individual efforts but notes their limits.
- B – They "bear the brunt" of problems.
- A – If individuals alone make big impacts, it undermines the need for reforms.
Passage 2 (Theme: Social Media & Mental Health – Contemporary Trend)
Social media's allure lies in instant connectivity, but it often breeds envy and isolation. Users curate perfect lives, triggering "FOMO" (fear of missing out) and self-doubt. Research links excessive scrolling to anxiety and sleep disturbances, yet platforms also foster communities for support. Moderation and digital literacy are key to harnessing benefits without succumbing to pitfalls.
- The passage describes social media as: A) Entirely positive B) Having both advantages and drawbacks C) Useless for connectivity D) Only harmful to sleep
- What does "curate" mean in context? A) Destroy B) Select and present carefully C) Ignore D) Criticize
- The author's suggestion for users is: A) Abandon social media B) Practice moderation and literacy C) Increase scrolling D) Focus only on communities
- Which strengthens the passage's point on negative effects? A) Studies showing no link to anxiety B) Evidence of higher depression rates among heavy users C) Platforms removing all curated content D) FOMO being beneficial
- The tone towards platform benefits is: A) Dismissive B) Acknowledging but cautious C) Overly optimistic D) Indifferent
Answers & Explanations for Passage 2: 6. B – Balances allure/connectivity with envy/isolation. 7. B – Users "curate perfect lives" to show ideal images. 8. B – Explicitly states "moderation and digital literacy are key." 9. B – Supports the research link to anxiety. 10. B – Notes benefits like communities but warns of pitfalls.
Passage 3 (Theme: Liberal Arts Education – Classic Inference-Based)
In a tech-driven world, liberal arts education equips students with critical thinking and adaptability, skills automation can't replicate. While STEM fields promise jobs, a well-rounded curriculum fosters innovation by blending humanities with science. Detractors claim it's impractical, but employers value versatile graduates who communicate effectively and solve complex problems ethically.
- The primary purpose is to: A) Criticize STEM education B) Advocate for liberal arts' value C) Promote automation D) Dismiss job concerns
- "Replicate" most nearly means: A) Improve B) Copy or imitate C) Destroy D) Ignore
- What can be inferred about employers? A) They prefer only STEM skills B) They seek ethical problem-solvers C) They undervalue communication D) They oppose humanities
- The author's attitude towards detractors is: A) Agreeing B) Countering with evidence C) Ignoring D) Supporting
- Which weakens the argument? A) Liberal arts graduates have higher unemployment B) STEM jobs require no adaptability C) Automation replaces versatile skills D) Employers report needing more critical thinkers
Answers & Explanations for Passage 3: 11. B – Emphasizes benefits like critical thinking and innovation. 12. B – Automation can't "copy" human skills. 13. B – They value versatile, ethical solvers. 14. B – Acknowledges claims but counters with employer value. 15. A – If unemployment is higher, it questions practicality.
Passage 4 (Theme: Freedom of Expression – Legal/Ethical Angle)
Freedom of expression fuels democracy by enabling dissent and progress, but it must not cross into harm. Hate speech erodes social cohesion, justifying reasonable limits. Absolute liberty risks tyranny of the majority over minorities, while over-regulation stifles creativity. A balanced approach, guided by context and intent, safeguards both rights and harmony.
- The main idea is: A) Freedom should be unlimited B) Balance is needed between expression and preventing harm C) Hate speech is democratic D) Regulations always stifle
- "Erodes" means: A) Builds B) Gradually wears away C) Ignores D) Strengthens
- The author's view on absolute liberty is: A) Fully supportive B) Critical due to risks C) Neutral D) Irrelevant
- What supports the balanced approach? A) Examples of unregulated speech causing division B) Total bans leading to innovation C) Minorities thriving under tyranny D) Context being unnecessary
- The tone is: A) Alarmist B) Measured and reasoned C) Dismissive D) Emotional
Answers & Explanations for Passage 4: 16. B – Stresses limits on harm while protecting rights. 17. B – Hate speech "wears away" cohesion. 18. B – Risks like tyranny are highlighted. 19. A – Shows need for limits. 20. B – Logical discussion of pros/cons.
Passage 5 (Theme: Urbanization Challenges – Mixed Comprehension)
Urbanization drives economic booms but exacerbates inequality and environmental strain. Overcrowded cities face housing shortages and pollution, demanding smart planning like green spaces and public transport. Without inclusive growth, social unrest looms, underscoring the need for policies that benefit all strata.
- The passage implies urbanization is: A) Always negative B) Beneficial if managed well C) Irreversible D) Only economic
- "Exacerbates" means: A) Reduces B) Worsens C) Solves D) Ignores
- A solution inferred is: A) Halting city growth B) Inclusive policies and smart planning C) Increasing pollution D) Ignoring inequality
- Which strengthens the need for planning? A) Cities without issues B) Evidence of unrest in unplanned areas C) Economic booms without strain D) No benefits from green spaces
Answers & Explanations for Passage 5: 21. B – Drives booms but needs management. 22. B – Makes inequality/strain worse. 23. B – Green spaces, transport, inclusive growth. 24. B – Supports warnings of unrest.
"CLAT Current Affairs including GK Full Section Practice Set 2026–2027 | 28 Passage-Based Questions with Answers & Explanations (Exact CLAT 2026 Pattern)"
Passage 1 (BRICS Summit & India-China Relations – Key IR Topic)
At the recent BRICS summit in Russia, Prime Minister Modi and President Xi Jinping held talks after a four-year gap, focusing on border resolution and enhanced cooperation. The group expanded to include Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia, and UAE, emphasizing de-dollarization through local currency trade and alternative payment systems. India advocated for balanced multilateralism and Global South priorities, amid ongoing tensions like border issues. The communique highlighted projects like Chabahar Port support and Big Cats preservation but lacked specifics on timelines or Ukraine.
1- What was a major highlight of the Modi-Xi meeting at BRICS?
A) Military alliance formation B) Diplomatic dialogue on border issues C) Exclusion of new members D) Full de-dollarization adoption
Answer: B Explanation: Passage notes talks on resolving stand-off and managing differences.
2- BRICS expansion included which countries? A) Only African nations B) Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia, UAE C) Western allies D) Only South American
Answer: B Explanation: Direct from expansion list.
3- India's emphasis in BRICS was on: A) Isolation from Global South B) Reforms in global institutions and balanced cooperation C) Dominance by one member D) Ignoring border tensions
Answer: B Explanation: Balanced multilateralism and IMF reforms.
4- The communique mentioned Chabahar Port in context of: A) Trade facilitation projects B) Military exercises C) Environmental bans D) Currency wars
Answer: A Explanation: Part of trade-enhancing initiatives.
5- The passage implies BRICS aims to: A) Fully replace the dollar immediately B) Counter Western financial dominance gradually C) Focus only on environmental issues D) Exclude Russia
Answer: B Explanation: De-dollarization and alternative systems mentioned.
Passage 2 (Waqf Amendment Bill – Polity & Governance)
The Waqf (Amendment) Bill proposes digitization of records, inclusion of non-Muslims in Waqf boards, and stricter government oversight to curb misuse and encroachments. Proponents highlight transparency to prevent corruption, while critics argue it violates religious autonomy under Article 26 of the Constitution. The bill fits into wider reforms on minority institutions and land management.
6- Primary aim of the Waqf Amendment Bill:
A) Abolish Waqf properties B) Enhance transparency and curb misuse C) Remove all government role D) Limit non-Muslim participation
Answer: B Explanation: Digitization, oversight for misuse prevention.
7- Critics' main objection: A) Economic inefficiency B) Interference with religious autonomy (Article 26) C) Too much digitization D) Excess funding
Answer: B Explanation: Religious rights concern.
8- "Encroachments" refers to: A) Legal transfers B) Illegal occupations of Waqf land C) Government donations D) Board expansions
Answer: B Explanation: Misuse via illegal takeover.
9- The bill aligns with reforms in: A) Only economic policy B) Minority institutions and land laws C) International trade D) Sports governance
Answer: B Explanation: Broader minority/land reforms.
10- Supporters' key argument: A) No corruption exists B) Addresses encroachments and corruption C) Reduces board size D) Increases religious interference
Answer: B Explanation: Transparency to prevent misuse.
Passage 3 (Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam – Women's Reservation)
The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam reserves 33% seats for women in Lok Sabha and state assemblies, to be implemented post-delimitation. It promotes gender parity in politics after long debates. Issues include demands for OBC sub-categorization within the quota and phased rollout.
11- Reservation percentage for women:
A) 25% B) 33% C) 50% D) 40%
Answer: B Explanation: Standard 1/3rd quota.
12- Implementation linked to: A) Immediate rollout B) Delimitation and census C) State-only consent D) International norms
Answer: B Explanation: Phased after delimitation.
13- Major challenge: A) No women candidates B) Sub-categorization and OBC quotas C) Overfunding D) Zero opposition
Answer: B Explanation: Demands for internal quotas.
14- Goal of the bill: A) Economic focus only B) Political gender equality C) Reduce assembly seats D) Minority quotas
Answer: B Explanation: Boost representation.
15- Passage tone: A) Strongly opposing B) Neutral, noting aims and hurdles C) Dismissive D) Overly praising
Answer: B Explanation: Balanced on aims vs challenges.
Passage 4 (India's Stance in Global Conflicts – e.g., Russia-Ukraine)
India upheld strategic autonomy in the Russia-Ukraine conflict, maintaining energy imports from Russia while calling for dialogue and peace. This balanced economic needs with diplomatic relations amid Western sanctions.
16- India's policy described as:
A) Full alignment with West B) Strategic autonomy C) Total neutrality D) Joining sanctions
Answer: B Explanation: Independent balancing.
17- Key action: A) Halt Russian imports B) Continue energy purchases C) Military support D) Sever ties
Answer: B Explanation: Imports continued.
18- "Strategic autonomy" implies: A) Western dependence B) Independent foreign policy C) Isolation D) Fixed alliances
Answer: B Explanation: Self-determined choices.
Passage 5 (Aditya-L1 Mission & Science/Tech – High-Yield)
ISRO's Aditya-L1 solar observatory reached the L1 point successfully, enabling continuous solar observation for space weather forecasting. It complements Chandrayaan and Gaganyaan missions in India's space ambitions.
19- Aditya-L1's achievement:
A) Lunar landing B) Reached L1 point for solar study C) Manned mission D) Mars orbit
Answer: B Explanation: Solar mission at L1.
20 -Purpose: A) Only entertainment B) Space weather and solar monitoring C) Military surveillance D) Commercial satellites
Answer: B Explanation: Forecasting and observation.
21- Recent SCO summit host city (example trend): A) Astana B) Tianjin C) Islamabad D) New Delhi
Answer: B (Based on trends; adjust if exact 2025/26).
22- India's Chabahar Port support aims at: A) Trade access to Afghanistan/Central Asia B) Military base C) Tourism D) Fishing rights
Answer: A
23- Paris Olympics key for India: A) No medals B) Shooting/athletics successes (e.g., Manu Bhaker, Neeraj) C) Hosting next D) Boycott
Answer: B
24- Trump's recent policies impact on India: A) Tariffs on imports affecting trade B) No effect C) Free trade agreement D) Visa bans lifted
Answer: A
25- Nobel Economics 2025 theme (trend): A) Institutions and prosperity B) Climate only C) AI ethics D) Vaccines
Answer: A
26- Pahalgam incident linked to: A) Tourism boost B) Security/terrorism concerns C) Sports event D) Economic reform
Answer: B
27- Air India recent event (trend): A) Major crash/incident analysis B) Privatization complete C) New fleet only D) No news
Answer: A
28- SAARC/Indus Waters context: A) Revived talks B) Suspended due to tensions C) New members D) Dissolved
Answer: B
Full Answers Summary (Copy for your post): 1-B, 2-B, 3-B, 4-A, 5-B, 6-B, 7-B, 8-B, 9-B, 10-B, 11-B, 12-B, 13-B, 14-B, 15-B, 16-B, 17-B, 18-B, 19-B, 20-B, 21-B, 22-A, 23-B, 24-A, 25-A, 26-B, 27-A, 28-B.
"CLAT Legal Reasoning Full Section Practice Set 2026–2027 | 30 Passage-Based Questions with Answers & Explanations (Exact CLAT Pattern Match)"
Passage 1 (Theme: Law of Contracts – Consent & Misconception – Classic High-Yield)
The Indian Contract Act, 1872, defines consent under Section 13 as two or more persons agreeing upon the same thing in the same sense. Section 14 states consent is free when not caused by coercion, undue influence, fraud, misrepresentation, or mistake. Section 90 provides that consent is not free if given under fear of injury or misconception of fact. A minor's agreement is void ab initio, but contracts for necessities may be enforceable against their estate.
1- Principle: Consent given under misconception of fact is not free consent.
Fact: A woman consents to sexual intercourse believing the man is her husband due to deception in the dark. What is the legal position? A) Consent is valid B) Consent is vitiated by misconception C) Consent is valid as no coercion D) Contract is enforceable
Answer: B Explanation: Misconception of fact (identity) vitiates consent per Section 90.
2- Principle: Agreements with minors are void. Fact: A 16-year-old borrows money for education and promises repayment. Is the agreement enforceable? A) Yes, as necessity B) No, void ab initio C) Enforceable against estate D) Partially valid
Answer: B Explanation: Minor's agreements are void; even necessities may not bind personally.
3- If consent is obtained by fraud, the contract is: A) Valid B) Voidable at option of aggrieved party C) Void D) Enforceable
Answer: B Explanation: Fraud makes consent not free; contract voidable.
4- Principle: Consideration must be lawful. Fact: A agrees to sell goods to B for illegal purpose. Is the contract valid? A) Valid B) Void C) Voidable D) Enforceable partially
Answer: B Explanation: Unlawful consideration voids the contract.
5- What vitiates free consent? A) Coercion B) Mutual promise C) Lawful object D) Capacity
Answer: A Explanation: Coercion causes consent not to be free.
6- In case of undue influence, the contract is: A) Void B) Voidable C) Valid D) Illegal
Answer: B Explanation: Undue influence makes contract voidable.
Passage 2 (Theme: Law of Torts – Negligence & Vicarious Liability – Repeated Topic)
Negligence is failure to take reasonable care, resulting in damage. The elements are duty of care, breach, and damage (causation). Vicarious liability holds employer liable for employee's torts in course of employment. Strict liability applies for hazardous activities (Rylands v. Fletcher rule: non-natural use leading to escape causing damage).
7- Principle: Employer liable for employee's negligence in course of employment.
Fact: Driver employed by company causes accident while delivering goods. Who is liable? A) Driver only B) Employer vicariously C) No one D) Government
Answer: B Explanation: Vicarious liability applies.
8- Principle: Strict liability for escape of dangerous thing. Fact: Factory stores chemicals; leak causes harm to neighbor. Is owner liable without negligence? A) No B) Yes, strict liability C) Only if negligent D) Shared liability
Answer: B Explanation: Rylands rule – non-natural use and escape.
9- In negligence, what must plaintiff prove? A) Duty, breach, damage B) Intent only C) Strict proof D) No causation
Answer: A Explanation: Classic elements.
10- If no duty of care, claim fails in: A) Negligence B) Strict liability C) Vicarious D) All
Answer: A Explanation: Duty is essential for negligence.
11- Vicarious liability requires: A) Employee acting outside employment B) Tort in course of employment C) No employer-employee relation D) Independent contractor
Answer: B Explanation: Key condition.
12- Principle: Contributory negligence reduces damages. Fact: Victim partially at fault in accident. Damages: A) Full B) Reduced proportionately C) None D) Increased
Answer: B Explanation: Apportionment.
Passage 3 (Theme: Constitutional Law – Fundamental Rights & Restrictions – High-Frequency)
Article 19 guarantees freedoms like speech, assembly, with reasonable restrictions for public order, morality, etc. Article 21 protects life and liberty; expanded to include privacy, dignity. Article 14 ensures equality before law; reasonable classification allowed.
13- Principle: Freedom of speech not absolute.
Fact: Speech incites violence. Restriction valid if: A) Arbitrary B) Reasonable for public order C) Total ban D) No restriction
Answer: B Explanation: Reasonable restrictions permitted.
14- Right to privacy under Article 21 includes: A) Only property B) Dignity and personal autonomy C) Commercial only D) No privacy
Answer: B Explanation: Landmark expansions (e.g., Puttaswamy case).
15- Equality under Article 14 allows: A) Arbitrary discrimination B) Reasonable classification C) No classification D) Absolute equality
Answer: B Explanation: Intelligible differentia + rational nexus.
16- If law violates Article 21 arbitrarily: A) Valid B) Void C) Voidable D) Enforceable
Answer: B Explanation: Due process/fairness required.
17- Reasonable restriction test for Article 19: A) Proportionality B) No test C) Strict scrutiny only D) None
Answer: A Explanation: Modern test includes proportionality.
18- Article 14 struck down law if: A) No nexus B) Rational nexus C) Arbitrary only D) All laws valid
Answer: A Explanation: No intelligible differentia or nexus → violation.
Passage 4 (Theme: Criminal Law Basics – IPC Offences – Common)
Section 300 IPC defines murder as culpable homicide with intention/knowledge of causing death or grievous hurt likely to cause death. Exceptions include grave provocation. Section 304 covers culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
19- Principle: Culpable homicide becomes murder if intent to cause death.
Fact: A shoots B intending to kill. B dies. Offence: A) Murder B) Culpable homicide C) Accident D) Negligence
Answer: A Explanation: Intention present.
20- Grave and sudden provocation reduces murder to: A) Murder B) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder C) Grievous hurt D) No offence
Answer: B Explanation: Exception 1 to Section 300.
21- If act done with knowledge but no intention: A) Murder B) Culpable homicide C) Rash act D) None
Answer: B Explanation: Knowledge clause in Section 300.
22- Private defence extends to: A) Causing death in certain cases B) Never death C) Only property D) Unlimited
Answer: A Explanation: Reasonable force, including death in grave threats.
23- Criminal intent absent in: A) Strict liability offences B) Murder C) Theft D) All
Answer: A Explanation: Some offences strict (e.g., food adulteration).
24- Section 34 IPC: A) Common intention B) Individual act C) No liability D) Vicarious
Answer: A Explanation: Joint liability for common intention.
Passage 5 (Theme: Current Legal Issues – e.g., Privacy & Surveillance – Trendy)
Surveillance laws must balance national security with privacy (Article 21). Arbitrary surveillance violates rights; must be proportionate, with safeguards like judicial oversight.
25- Principle: Surveillance needs proportionality.
Fact: Mass data collection without oversight. Valid? A) Yes B) No, violates privacy C) Only for citizens D) Unlimited
Answer: B Explanation: Arbitrary = violation.
26- Right to privacy includes: A) Data protection B) Only home C) No data D) Commercial only
Answer: A Explanation: Digital privacy.
27- If law lacks safeguards: A) Valid B) Unconstitutional C) Valid always D) Enforceable
Answer: B Explanation: Proportionality test.
28- Article 21 expanded to: A) Health, education B) Only life C) No expansion D) Property
Answer: A Explanation: Broad interpretation.
29- Public interest can justify: A) Unlimited restriction B) Reasonable restriction C) No restriction D) Ban
Answer: B Explanation: Balanced approach.
30- In surveillance cases, court emphasizes: A) Executive discretion B) Judicial oversight C) No oversight D) Police only
Answer: B Explanation: Safeguards required.
Full Answers Summary (for your post): 1-B, 2-B, 3-B, 4-B, 5-A, 6-B, 7-B, 8-B, 9-A, 10-A, 11-B, 12-B, 13-B, 14-B, 15-B, 16-B, 17-A, 18-A, 19-A, 20-B, 21-B, 22-A, 23-A, 24-A, 25-B, 26-A, 27-B, 28-A, 29-B, 30-B.
"CLAT Logical Reasoning Full Section Practice Set 2026–2027 | 26 Passage-Based Questions with Answers & Explanations (Exact CLAT 2026 Pattern)"
Passage 1 (Theme: Argument Evaluation – Strengthen /Weaken – Common Critical Reasoning)
Passage: Many experts argue that remote work improves productivity by reducing commute time and increasing flexibility. However, critics claim it leads to isolation, reduced collaboration, and burnout. Studies show mixed results: some companies report higher output, while others note communication breakdowns. The key factor appears to be effective management tools and company culture.
1- Which statement most strengthens the argument for remote work?
A) Commute time is increasing globally B) Companies with strong virtual tools report 20% higher productivity C) Isolation affects only introverts D) Burnout rates are the same in office and remote setups
Answer: B Explanation: Provides direct evidence of higher output with proper tools.
2- Which weakens the critics' claim about isolation? A) Remote workers report higher job satisfaction in surveys B) In-person meetings are always better for collaboration C) Burnout is higher in remote settings D) Communication tools are ineffective
Answer: A Explanation: Higher satisfaction counters isolation argument.
3- The main conclusion of the passage is: A) Remote work is always superior B) Effectiveness depends on management and culture C) Remote work causes burnout D) Studies are unreliable
Answer: B Explanation: Key factor highlighted.
4- An assumption underlying the critics' view: A) Collaboration requires physical presence B) Flexibility reduces output C) Commute time is irrelevant D) Tools eliminate isolation
Answer: A Explanation: Implied that remote hinders collaboration.
5- Which is parallel to the passage's reasoning? A) Exercise improves health, but over-exercise causes injury B) Books are better than movies for imagination C) Technology always solves problems D) Diet alone controls weight
Answer: A Explanation: Benefits with caveats, similar to remote work pros/cons.
6- The author's tone is: A) Strongly in favor of remote work B) Balanced and conditional C) Completely against D) Indifferent
Answer: B Explanation: Mixed results, key factors noted.
Passage 2 (Theme: Inference & Assumption – Social Issue Passage)
Passage: Urban green spaces reduce stress and improve mental health, as shown by lower depression rates in cities with more parks. However, rapid urbanization often prioritizes buildings over greenery, leading to concrete jungles. Governments should mandate minimum green coverage in new developments to prevent long-term health crises.
7- What can be inferred from the passage? A) All cities have sufficient parks B) Green spaces have a causal link to better mental health C) Urbanization has no benefits D) Depression is unrelated to environment
Answer: B Explanation: Lower rates linked to more parks.
8- An assumption in the recommendation: A) Mandates will be effective in increasing green spaces B) Buildings are always bad C) Mental health crises are inevitable D) Parks are expensive
Answer: A Explanation: Implied that government action works.
9- Which strengthens the argument for mandates? A) Cities without mandates have higher depression B) Green spaces increase property values C) Urbanization boosts economy D) Parks require maintenance
Answer: A Explanation: Direct correlation to health outcomes.
10- The passage implies that: A) Urbanization should stop B) Balance between development and greenery is needed C) Green spaces are unnecessary D) Stress is only urban
Answer: B Explanation: Prioritizes buildings but recommends minimum coverage.
11- If true, which weakens the passage? A) Depression rates are the same in green and non-green cities B) Parks reduce crime C) New developments include parks voluntarily D) Mental health improves with exercise
Answer: A Explanation: No link if rates unchanged.
Passage 3 (Theme: Analytical Puzzle – Seating/Arrangement – Surprise Type in 2026)
Passage: Five friends—A, B, C, D, E—sit in a row facing north. A is not at the end. B is to the immediate left of C. D is between A and E. C is not next to E. Who is at the extreme right?
12- Who is at the extreme right?
A) A B) E C) D D) B
Answer: B Explanation: Possible arrangement: D-A-E-B-C (or similar); rightmost E fits conditions.
13- Who is in the middle? A) A B) B C) C D) D
Answer: A Explanation: A central in valid setups.
14- Which is impossible? A) B next to D B) C at end C) E left of A D) A left of D
Answer: C Explanation: D between A and E implies order A-D-E or E-D-A.
(Questions 15–16 continue with inferences from arrangement.)
15- If B is third, who is first?
A) A B) D C) E D) C
Answer: B Explanation: Fits D-A-E-B-C.
16- The arrangement shows: A) No fixed order B) Logical constraints lead to unique positions C) Multiple possibilities D) No middle person
Answer: B Explanation: Constraints narrow options.
Passage 4 (Theme: Cause-Effect & Inference – Economic /Social)
Passage: High inflation reduces purchasing power, leading to lower consumer spending and economic slowdown. Central banks raise interest rates to curb inflation, but this can increase borrowing costs and stifle growth. A balanced approach is needed to avoid recession.
17- Main cause of slowdown:
A) High interest rates B) Reduced spending due to inflation C) Bank policies D) Growth in exports
Answer: B Explanation: Inflation → lower power → lower spending.
18- Raising rates is a: A) Cause of inflation B) Response to inflation C) Permanent solution D) Irrelevant
Answer: B Explanation: To curb it.
19- Inference: Balanced approach avoids: A) Growth B) Recession C) Inflation only D) Borrowing
Answer: B Explanation: Stifle growth leads to recession.
20- Assumption: High borrowing costs: A) Increase spending B) Reduce investment C) Have no effect D) Lower inflation directly
Answer: B Explanation: Stifles growth.
21- Which strengthens cause-effect chain? A) Countries with low inflation have high spending B) Interest rates don't affect borrowing C) Recession causes inflation D) Spending increases with rates
Answer: A Explanation: Inverse correlation supports.
22- Parallel reasoning: A) Exercise reduces weight but overdoes injury B) Medicine cures disease but side effects harm C) Both A and B D) None
Answer: C Explanation: Benefit with risk.
Passage 5 (Theme: Assumption & Strengthen/Weaken – Ethical/Policy)
Passage: Mandatory vaccination policies protect public health by achieving herd immunity. Opponents argue they infringe personal freedom. Evidence shows reduced disease outbreaks in mandated areas, but side effects exist in rare cases.
23- Assumption in pro-policy:
A) Freedom more important than health B) Herd immunity prevents outbreaks C) Side effects are common D) Policies fail
Answer: B Explanation: Core for protection.
24- Which strengthens policy argument? A) Outbreaks higher without mandates B) Side effects frequent C) Freedom unrestricted D) Diseases eradicated naturally
Answer: A Explanation: Evidence of success.
25- Weakens opponents: A) Rare side effects vs. widespread disease risk B) Policies always fail C) No herd immunity D) Freedom absolute
Answer: A Explanation: Balances risk.
26- Conclusion: Policies are justified if: A) Benefits outweigh risks B) Freedom ignored C) No evidence D) Always harmful
Answer: A Explanation: Public health vs. rare issues.
Full Answers Summary (for your post): 1-B, 2-A, 3-B, 4-A, 5-A, 6-B, 7-B, 8-A, 9-A, 10-B, 11-A, 12-B, 13-A, 14-C, 15-B, 16-B, 17-B, 18-B, 19-B, 20-B, 21-A, 22-C, 23-B, 24-A, 25-A, 26-A.
"CLAT Quantitative Techniques Full Section Practice Set 2026–2027 | 12 Passage-Based Questions with Answers & Explanations (Exact CLAT 2026 Pattern)"
Data Set 1 (Table – Sales & Profit Analysis – High-Yield DI Type)
The table shows sales and profit data for a company over 4 years:
| Year | Units Sold | Selling Price per Unit (₹) | Cost Price per Unit (₹) | Total Profit (₹ lakh) |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| 2023 | 500 | 200 | 150 | 2.5 |
| 2024 | 600 | 220 | 160 | 3.6 |
| 2025 | 720 | 240 | 170 | 5.04 |
| 2026 | 800 | 250 | 180 | ? |
1- What is the percentage increase in units sold from 2023 to 2025?
A) 40% B) 44% C) 50% D) 60%
Answer: B Explanation: Increase = 720 - 500 = 220; % = (220/500) × 100 = 44%.
2- Profit per unit in 2025 is: A) ₹60 B) ₹70 C) ₹80 D) ₹90
Answer: B Explanation: Profit per unit = 240 - 170 = ₹70.
3- If total profit in 2026 is ₹6.4 lakh, profit per unit in 2026 is: A) ₹70 B) ₹80 C) ₹85 D) ₹90
Answer: B Explanation: Profit per unit = Total profit / Units = 6.4 lakh / 800 = ₹80.
4- Average units sold over 2023–2025: A) 600 B) 606.67 C) 610 D) 620
Answer: B Explanation: (500 + 600 + 720)/3 = 1820/3 ≈ 606.67.
Data Set 2 (Percentage & Ratio – Election/Quota Passage – Frequent Topic)
amarsingh
In a state election, Party A won 40% of votes, Party B 35%, Party C 20%, and others 5%. Total votes: 10 lakh. Seats are allocated proportionally. Party A has 120 seats out of 300 total. Voter turnout was 80% of registered voters.
5- Votes received by Party A:
A) 3.5 lakh B) 4 lakh C) 4.5 lakh D) 5 lakh
Answer: B Explanation: 40% of 10 lakh = 4 lakh.
6- Ratio of votes: Party A to Party B: A) 4:3 B) 8:7 C) 5:4 D) 7:6
Answer: B Explanation: 40:35 = 8:7.
7- If seats are exactly proportional, expected seats for Party A: A) 120 B) 125 C) 130 D) 135
Answer: A Explanation: 40% of 300 = 120 (matches given).
8- Registered voters (if turnout 80%): A) 11.5 lakh B) 12 lakh C) 12.5 lakh D) 13 lakh
Answer: C Explanation: 10 lakh / 80% = 10 / 0.8 = 12.5 lakh.
Data Set 3 (Time, Work & Speed – Mixed Arithmetic – Common)
A can complete a work in 12 days, B in 18 days. They work together for 4 days, then A leaves. C completes the rest in 5 days. C alone takes 30 days for full work.
9- Work done by A and B in 4 days:
A) 5/9 B) 1/2 C) 4/9 D) 2/3
Answer: A Explanation: A+B = 1/12 + 1/18 = (3+2)/36 = 5/36 per day; ×4 = 20/36 = 5/9.
10- Remaining work after 4 days: A) 4/9 B) 5/9 C) 1/2 D) 1/3
Answer: A Explanation: 1 - 5/9 = 4/9.
11- If train covers 360 km in 4 hours, speed in km/h: A) 80 B) 90 C) 100 D) 120
Answer: B Explanation: Speed = Distance/Time = 360/4 = 90 km/h.
12- Average speed if half distance at 60 km/h, half at 90 km/h: A) 72 km/h B) 75 km/h C) 80 km/h D) 85 km/h
Answer: A Explanation: Average speed = 2ab/(a+b) = 2×60×90/(60+90) = 10800/150 = 72 km/h.
Full Answers Summary (for your post): 1-B, 2-B, 3-B, 4-B, 5-B, 6-B, 7-A, 8-C, 9-A, 10-A, 11-B, 12-A.
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