CHSL Previous Question Paper 2018 Morning 11 Jul 2019

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Staff Selection Commission (SSC) conducts SSC CHSL exam every year. It is one of the most competitive exams and if you are going to appear for it then your preparation should be strong. To help you practice more and crack the SSC CHSL exam we have come up with SSC CHSL Model Question Paper with Answer Key.  This SSC CHSL free mock test is set by our SME’s and experts to help you have an experience of SSC CHSL exam in real time. Moreover, this SSC CHSL question paper will help you know the exam pattern, SSC CHSL exam trend, and help you gain familiarity with SSC CHSL next Exam.
Staff Selection Commission
SSC: Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination Papers

SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) (CHSL Tier-1)

CHSL Tier-1 Exam 2018 

Exam Date: 11 July 2019

SSC CHSL (Tier - 1) Online Exam Paper - 2018 "held on 11 July 2019"

Morning-Shift (English Language)

 

Q.1 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
ACCURATE

Options:
1. real
2. genuine
3. sincere
4. precise
Correct answer: precise

Q.2 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.
As he crossed the desert he nearly ______ to thirst when he was forced to go without water for four days and five nights.

Options:
1. submerged
2. survived
3. subsisted
4. succumbed
Correct answer: succumbed

Q.3 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words
One who draws or produces maps

Options:
1. photographer
2. designer
3. cartographer
4. draftsman
Correct answer: cartographer

Q.4 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error.
She was unable to produce sufficient evidences for support her accusations.

Options:
1. She was unable
2. to produce
3. support her accusations
4. sufficient evidences for
Correct answer:  sufficient evidences for

Q.5 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom make short work of something

Options:
1. reduce the size
2. dispose of quickly
3. shorten some dress
4. edit carefully
Correct answer:  dispose of quickly

Q.6 Select the correct indirect form of the given sentence.
The interviewer asked Ramesh, "Do you have any idea about our products?"

Options:
1. The interviewer asked Ramesh that if he had any idea about the products.
2. The interviewer asked Ramesh if they had any idea about his products.
3. The interviewer asked Ramesh if he have any idea about their products.
4. The interviewer asked Ramesh if he had any idea about their products.
Correct answer: The interviewer asked Ramesh if he had any idea about their products.

Q.7 Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.
Once again, higher food inflation, in combination with fuel and power, provided ______ to the wholesale inflation.

Options:
1. insight
2. impetus
3. inspiration
4. impression
Correct answer: impetus

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

If winter seems to be the season for migratory birds to flock to warmer climates, summer time is ideal for wetland birds. (1) ______ fifty kilometers from Warangal in Telangana, Pakhal lake (2) ______ to be playing host to (3) ______ wide variety of flora and fauna (4) ______ season. Wetland birds from North and Central India come (5) ______ the south in search of larger water bodies.

Q.8 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.1.

Options:
1. Totally
2. But
3. Not
4. Nearly
Correct answer: Nearly

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

If winter seems to be the season for migratory birds to flock to warmer climates, summer time is ideal for wetland birds. (1) ______ fifty kilometers from Warangal in Telangana, Pakhal lake (2) ______ to be playing host to (3) ______ wide variety of flora and fauna (4) ______ season. Wetland birds from North and Central India come (5) ______ the south in search of larger water bodies.

Q.9 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.2.

Options:
1. will seems
2. seem
3. was seemed
4. seems
Correct answer: seems

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

If winter seems to be the season for migratory birds to flock to warmer climates, summer time is ideal for wetland birds. (1) ______ fifty kilometers from Warangal in Telangana, Pakhal lake (2) ______ to be playing host to (3) ______ wide variety of flora and fauna (4) ______ season. Wetland birds from North and Central India come (5) ______ the south in search of larger water bodies.

Q.10 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.3.

Options:
1. an
2. a
3. the
4. one
Correct answer: a

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

If winter seems to be the season for migratory birds to flock to warmer climates, summer time is ideal for wetland birds. (1) ______ fifty kilometers from Warangal in Telangana, Pakhal lake (2) ______ to be playing host to (3) ______ wide variety of flora and fauna (4) ______ season. Wetland birds from North and Central India come (5) ______ the south in search of larger water bodies.


Q.11 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.4.

Options:
1. this
2. that
3. their
4. these
Correct answer: this

Comprehension:
In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.

If winter seems to be the season for migratory birds to flock to warmer climates, summer time is ideal for wetland birds. (1) ______ fifty kilometers from Warangal in Telangana, Pakhal lake (2) ______ to be playing host to (3) ______ wide variety of flora and fauna (4) ______ season. Wetland birds from North and Central India come (5) ______ the south in search of larger water bodies.

Q.12 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank No.5.

Options:
1. towards
2. away
3. about
4. below
Correct answer: towards

Q.13 Select the wrongly spelt word.

Options:
1. fourteenth
2. fortieth
3. seventeenth
4. fifteenth
Correct answer: fortieth

Q.14 Select the most appropriate word for the given group of words
A person who sells and arranges cut flowers

Options:
1. botanist
2. florist
3. nutritionist
4. agriculturist
Correct answer: florist

Q.15 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
DEDICATION

Options:
1. determination
2. trepidation
3. commitment
4. contentment
Correct answer: commitment

Q.16 Select the correctly spelt word.

Options:
1. manageble
2. manegeable
3. manageable
4. managable
Correct answer: manageable

Q.17 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.
My professor gave me a lot of useful advices when I was writing my research paper.

Options:
1. gave me a lot of useful advice
2. No improvement
3. gave me a lots of useful advices
4. give me lots of useful advices
Correct answer: gave me a lot of useful advice

Q.18 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom make no headway

Options:
1. forced to fix a new goal
2. unable to overtake anyone
3. check if the head can pass through
4. unable to progress ahead
Correct answer: unable to progress ahead

Q.19 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.
HOPE

Options:
1. confidence
2. despair
3. daring
4. courage
Correct answer:  despair

Q.20 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains the grammatical error.
The team began searching for reasons for their poor performance in the tournament.

Options:
1. searching for reasons
2. The team began
3. for their poor performance
4. in the tournament
Correct answer: for their poor performance

Q.21 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order.

A. Using matches however came much later.
B. The first great discovery that man probably made was that of fire.
C. In olden times fires were made by rubbing two flints against each other till a spark was produced.
D. And this spark set fire to dry straw, leaves or wood.
Options:
1. BCDA
2. BDAC
3. CBDA
4. ADBC
Correct answer:  BCDA

Q.22 Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word.
ABSTRACT

Options:
1. vague
2. intangible
3. elusive
4. concrete
Correct answer: concrete

Q.23 Given below are four jumbled sentences. Out of the given options pick the one that gives their correct order.

A. We had already covered half the distance when we reached a three-road junction.
B. I was worried it might pounce on us.
C. But thankfully we picked up speed and it got left behind.
D. Suddenly, a barking dog began to chase the bike for some distance.
Options:
1. ABDC
2. BDAC
3. DACB
4. ADBC
Correct answer: ADBC

Q.24 Select the correct passive form of the given sentence.
Someone gave him a new case for his credit cards.

Options:
1. He has given a new case for his credit cards.
2. He is given a new case for his credit cards.
3. He had given a new case for his credit cards.
4. He was given a new case for his credit cards.
Correct answer: He was given a new case for his credit cards.

Q.25 .Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No improvement.
The minister promise to looked into the matter of fuel emissions and air pollution.

Options:
1. No improvement
2. promise to looks into
3. promises to looking at
4. promised to look into
Correct answer: promised to look into

Morning-Shift (Reasoning)

Q1. Which letter-pair will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?
FJ, HL, ? , LP, NR

Options:
1. IN
2. GM
3. JM
4. JN
Correct answer: JN

Q2. Select the option that is related to the third letter-pair in the same way as the second letter-pair is related to the first letter-pair.
DJ : HT : : HM : ?

Options:
1. LW
2. JK
3. LP
4. PY
Correct answer: LW

Q3. Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and one is different. Pick the odd one out.

Options:
1. DFHJ
2. CEGI
3. QSUV
4. JLNP
Correct answer: QSUV

Q4. A paper is folded and cut as shown in the following figure (). Select the option that depicts how this paper will appear when unfolded?

Q5. Select the answer Fig. that will come next in the following Problem Fig. series.

Q6. Three of the following four numbers are alike in a certain way and one is different.
Pick the number that is different from the rest.

Options:
1. 85
2. 65
3. 95
4. 75
Correct answer: 75

Q7. Select the number-pair in which the two numbers are related in the same way as are the two numbers of the following number-pair.
29, 31

Options:
1. 23, 25
2. 15, 17
3. 11, 13
4. 20, 21
Correct answer: 11, 13

Q8. What was the day of the week on 15 August 2013?

Options:
1. Monday
2. Wednesday
3. Thursday
4. Tuesday
Correct answer:  Thursday

Q9. Which two signs should be interchanged in the following equation to make it correct?
5 + 8 - 30 × 10 ÷ 2 = 240

Options:
1. + and -
2. × and ÷
3. + and ÷
4. × and -
Correct answer:  × and -

Q10. Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is placed to the right of the figure.

 

Q11. Select the Venn diagram that best illustrates the relationship between the following classes.
Rats, Frogs, Snakes

Q12. Select the word-pair in which the two words are related in the same way as are the two words in the following word-pair.
Cement : Building

Options:
1. Pen : Pencil
2. Wire : Electricity
3. Book : Author
4. Wood : Furniture
Correct answer:  Wood : Furniture

Q13. How many triangles are present in the following figure?

Options:
1. 10
2. 13
3. 9
4. 11
Correct answer: 11

Q14. Three of the following four words are alike in a certain way and one is different.
Pick the odd word out.

Options:
1. Jeep
2. Ship
3. Car
4. Truck
Correct answer: Ship

Q15. Select the option in which the given figure (X) is embedded.

Q16. In a code language, GOURD is written as IQSTF. How will APHID be written as in that language?

Options:
1. CREKF
2. CRJKF
3. CRFKF
4. CRFLF
Correct answer: CRFKF

Q17. Arrange the following words in the sequence as they appear in English dictionary order.

1. Mercury
2. Earth
3. Jupiter
4. Venus
5. Mars
Options:
1. 2, 3, 5, 1, 4
2. 4, 2, 5, 3, 1
3. 1, 4, 2, 3, 5
4. 2, 3, 1, 5, 4
Correct answer: 2, 3, 5, 1, 4

Q18. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.
(49, 81, 121)

Options:
1. (16, 25, 49)
2. (16, 64, 100)
3. (36, 64, 100)
4. (9, 4, 8)
Correct answer: (36, 64, 100)

Q19. ‘ENGINEER’ is related to ‘BUILDING’ in the same way as ‘WRITER’ is related to ‘_________’.

Options:
1. BOOK
2. PEN
3. INK
4. PAPER
Correct answer: BOOK

Q20. Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following set.
(16, 36, 64)

Options:
1. (12, 32, 50)
2. (10, 30, 58)
3. (6, 36, 80)
4. (9, 25, 62)
Correct answer:  (10, 30, 58)

Q21. Anil and Abhay are brothers. Swati is the daughter of Samir and sister of Anil. How is Abhay's mother related to Samir?

Options:
1. Sister-in-law
2. Sister
3. Mother
4. Wife
Correct answer: Wife

Q22. Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?
2, 4, 7, 12, 19, 30, ?

Options:
1. 38
2. 47
3. 43
4. 36
Correct answer: 43

Q23. If BARBER is coded as 116 and GLINT is coded as 73, then how will LIZARD be coded as?

Options:
1. 92
2. 91
3. 90
4. 93
Correct answer: 92

Q25. Three statements are given, followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:
All hens are eggs.
All birds are eggs.
All eggs are lions.
Conclusions:
I. All hens are lions.
II. Some lions are eggs.
III. All birds are lions.
Options:
1. All the conclusions follow.
2. Only conclusion I follows.
3. Only conclusions I and II follow.
4. Only conclusions II and III follow.
Correct answer: All the conclusions follow.

Morning-Shift (Quantitative Aptitude)

Q1. The full marks for a paper is 300. The break-up of the marks into theory (X), practical (Y) and (Z) project, which are the three components of evalution is 6 : 5 : 4. In order to pass one has to score at least 40%, 50% and 50% respectively in XYZ and 60% in aggregate. The marks scored by four students ABC and D are shown in the given Bar Graph.

How much percentage marks more than B has C scored in practical

Options:
1. 40
2. 20
3. 30
4. 60
Correct answer: 30

Q2. With reference to a number greater than one, the difference between itself and its reciprocal is 25% of the sum of itself and its reciprocal. By how much percentage (correct one decimal place) is the fourth power of the number greater than its square?

Options:
1. 62.5
2. 66.7
3. 64.5
4. 57.8
Correct answer: 66.7

Q3. AB and CD are two chords of a circle which intersect at a point O inside the circle. It is given that, AB = 10 cm, CO= 1.5 cm and DO = 12.5 cm. What is the ratio between the larger and smaller among AO and BO?

Options:
1. 3 : 2
2. 4 : 1
3. 7 : 3
4. 3 : 1
Correct answer: 3 : 1

Q4. During a practice session in a stadium an athlete runs along a circular track and her performance is observed by her coach standing at a point on the circle and also by her physiotherapist standing at the centre of the circle. The coach finds that she covers an angle of 72° in 1 min. What will be the angle covered by her in  1 second according to the measurement made by her physiotherapist?

Options:
1. 2.4
2. 1.2
3. 4.8
4. It depend on the position of the coach on the circular track
Correct answer: 2.4

Q5. The full marks for a paper is 300. The break-up of the marks into theory (X), practical (Y) and (Z) project, which are the three components of evalution is 6 : 5 : 4. In order to pass one has to score at least 40%, 50% and 50% respectively in XYZ and 60% in aggregate. The marks scored by four students ABC and D are shown in the given Bar Graph.

What is the average marks of the four students in theory?

Options:
1. 60
2. 65
3. 70
4. 68
Correct answer: 65

Q6. The value of
18.43 x 18.43 - 6.57 x 6.57 / 11.86 is:

Options:
1. 23.62
2. 26
3. 24.12
4. 25
Correct answer: 25

Q7. A purchased two articles for Rs.200 and Rs.300 respectively and sold at gains of 5% and 10% respectively. What was his overall gain percentage?

Options:
1. 8
2. 5
3. 9
4. 6
Correct answer: 8

Q8. A can complete a piece of work in 20 days and B can complete 20% of the work in 6 days. If they work together in how many days can they finish 50% of the work, if they work together?

Options:
1. 6
2. 8
3. 9
4. 12
Correct answer: 6

Q9. The ten digit number 2x600000y8 is exactly divisible by 24. If x ≠ 0 and y ≠ 0, then the least value of (x + y) is equal to:

Options:
1. 2
2. 5
3. 8
4. 9
Correct answer: 5

Q10. The average of 1088 real numbers is zero. At most how many of them can be negative?

Options:
1. 88
2. 100
3. 1087
4. 544
Correct answer: 1087

Q11. The two diagonals of a rhombus are respectively, 14 cm and 48 cm. The perimeter of the rhombus is equal to:

Options:
1. 100 cm
2. 160 cm
3. 80 cm
4. 120 cm
Correct answer: 100 cm

Q12. A certain sum was invested on simple interest. The amount to which it had grown in five years was 5/4 times the amount to which it had grown in three years. The percentage rate of interest was:

Options:
1. 15%
2. 25%
3. 20%
4. 10%
Correct answer: 20%

Q13. For all ∞ts(i = 1,2,3,...,20) lying between 0° and 90°, it is given that sin ∞1 + sin ∞2 + sin ∞3 + .....+ sin ∞20 = 20

What is the value (in degrees) of  (∞1 + ∞2 + ∞3 + .....+ ∞20 )


Options:

1. 900
2. 1800
3. 0
4. 20

Correct answer: 1800

Q14. The ration of the square of a number to the reciprocal of its cube is 243/16807
What is the number?

Options:
1. 2/7
2. 3/7
3. 5/7
4. 7/3
Correct answer: 3/7

Q15. O,G,I and H are respectively the circumcentre, centroid, incentre and orthocentre of an equilateral triangle. Which of these points are indentical ?

Options:
1. O and I only
2. O,G,I and H
3. O and G only
4. O, G and H only
Correct answer: O,G,I and H

Q16. What is the value of cosec² 30° + sin² 45° + sec² 60° +tan² 30°?

Options:
1. 8
2. 53/6
3. 9
4. 25/3
Correct answer: 53/6

Q17. For 0° ≤ θ ≤ 90°, what is θ , when
√3cosec θ + sin θ = 1?

Options:
1. 0°
2. 30°
3. 45°
4. 90°
Correct answer: 90°

Q18. An article having marked price, Rs.900, was sold for Rs.648 after two successive discounts . The first discount was 20%. What was the percentage rate of the second discount?

Options:
1. 5
2. 15
3. 10
4. 12.5
Correct answer: 10

Q19. If 10/7 (1 - 2.43 X 10¯3) = 1.417 + x, then x is equal to:

Options:
1. 0.417
2. 0.81
3. 0.0081
4. 0.417
Correct answer: 0.0081

Q20. The simplified value of {5/4 of (7/3 ÷ 7/5) - 17/12} + 1/9 ÷ 7/3 + 2/7 + 1/6 is :

Options:
1. 1
2. 3/2
3. 7/3
4. 7/6
Correct answer: 7/6

Q21. The full marks for a paper is 300. The break-up of the marks into theory (X), practical (Y) and (Z) project, which are the three components of evalution is 6 : 5 : 4. In order to pass one has to score at least 40%, 50% and 50% respectively in XYZ and 60% in aggregate. The marks scored by four students ABC and D are shown in the given Bar Graph.

Who among the students could not pass?

Options:
1. B only
2. A only
3. B and C
4. B and D
Correct answer: B and D

Q22. If (3x + 1)³ + (x - 3)³ + (4 - 2x)³ + 6 (3x + 1) (x - 3) (x - 2) = 0,
then x is equal to:

Options:
1. 1
2. -1
3. 1/2
4. -1/2
Correct answer: -1

Q23.  The full marks for a paper is 300. The break-up of the marks into theory (X), practical (Y) and (Z) project, which are the three components of evalution is 6 : 5 : 4. In order to pass one has to score at least 40%, 50% and 50% respectively in XYZ and 60% in aggregate. The marks scored by four students ABC and D are shown in the given Bar Graph.

Arrange the students B,C and D according to the ascending order of the aggregate marks scored by them.

Options:
1. B, C, D
2. B, D, C
3. D, B, C
4. C, D, B
Correct answer: B, D, C

Q24. The platform of a station 400 m long starts exactly where the last span of a bridge 1.2 km long ends. How long will a train 200 m long and travelling at the speed of 72 km/h take to cover the distance between the starting point of the span of the bridge and the far end of the platform?

Options:
1. 1.5 min
2. 1.2 min
3. 1.6 min
4. 1.8 min
Correct answer:  1.5 min

Q25. ABC DEF and their perimeters are 60 cm and 48 cm respectively. What is the length AB, if DE is equal to 9 cm?

Options:
1. 18 cm
2. 12 cm
3. 17.5 cm
4. 16 cm
Correct answer: 12 cm


Morning-Shift (General Awareness)

Q1. Which one of the following is NOT a tributary of river Kaveri?


Options:
1. Bhavani
2. Amravati
3. Kabini
4. Vaigai
Correct answer: Vaigai

Q2. Rovers Cup is associated with which of the following sports?

Options:
1. Lawn Tennis
2. Football
3. Snooker
4. Swimming
Correct answer: Football

Q3. The Samkhaya School of Philosophy was founded by ________.

Options:
1. Gautama
2. Kumarila Bhatta
3. Patanjali
4. Kapila
Correct answer: Kapila

Q4. Justice Rajinder Sachar Committee was set up to study ________.

Options:
1. the impact of globalisation on India
2. the environmental issues of the western ghats in India
3. the socio-economic status of Muslim community in India
4. the standards maintained by government hospitals in India
Correct answer: the socio-economic status of Muslim community in India

Q5. The head quarter of Federation Internationale de Football Association (FIFA) is located in _______.

Options:
1. Zurich
2. Paris
3. Madrid
4. Amsterdam
Correct answer: Zurich

Q6. The headquarters of computer technology giant, Intel is in ____________.

Options:
1. Frankfurt
2. Tokyo
3. London
4. California
Correct answer: Tokyo

Q7. Which one of the following lakes and their locations is INCORRECTLY matched?

Options:
1. Lonar-Maharashtra
2. Chilika-Andhra Pradesh
3. Loktak-Manipur
4. Roopkund-Uttarakhand
Correct answer: Lonar-Maharashtra

Q8. Who was sworn in as the new chief minister of Andhra Pradesh on 30th May 2019?

Options:
1. YS Jagan Mohan Reddy
2. Chandrababu Naidu
3. Raghuveera Reddy
4. Pawan Kalyan
Correct answer: YS Jagan Mohan Reddy

Q9. Pullela Gopichand is the chief national coach of the Indian ________ team as of June 2019.

Options:
1. Badminton
2. Archery
3. Basketball
4. Table tennis
Correct answer: Badminton

Q10. In May 2019, the kilogram was redefined for the first time in 130 years. It will now be redefined by a fundamental property of nature known as:

Options:
1. Magnetic Constant
2. Electric Constant
3. Planck's Constant
4. Gravitational Constant
Correct answer: Planck's Constant

Q11. Which of the following is a western flowing river?

Options:
1. Gomti
2. Krishna
3. Mahanadi
4. Sabarmati
Correct answer: Sabarmati

Q12. In the context of the banking system in India, what does IFSC stand for?

Options:
1. Indian Functional System Calculation
2. Indian Financial System Code
3. Indian Financial Structural Code
4. Indian Financial Social Code
Correct answer:  Indian Financial System Code
Q13. Which of the following is an example of terrestrial habitat?
Options:
1. Grassland
2. Swamp
3. Lagoon
4. Pond
Correct answer: Grassland

Q14. Which of the following texts gives a detailed account of the kings of Kashmir?

Options:
1. Katha Sarit Sagar
2. Rajatarangini
3. Dipavamsa
4. Vinaya Pitaka
Correct answer: Rajatarangini

Q15. Which country has become the second country in the world to declare a climate and biodiversity emergency?

Options:
1. Canada
2. Norway
3. Ireland
4. Bhutan
Correct answer: Ireland

Q16. In the cabinet of the 17th Lok Sabha, who has been appointed as the Finance Minister?

Options:
1. Nirmala Sitharaman
2. Rajnath Singh
3. Amit Shah
4. Smriti Irani
Correct answer:   Nirmala Sitharaman

Q17. Which of the following dances is in UNESCO's Intangible Heritage List?

Options:
1. Jhoomar
2. Chhau
3. Dalkhai
4. Fugdi
Correct answer: Chhau

Q18. In the context of the Internet, what is the full form of MAN?

Options:
1. Massive Area Network
2. Makeshift Area Network
3. Master Area Network
4. Metropolitan Area Network
Correct answer: Metropolitan Area Network

Q19. Who among the following was re-elected as the Prime Minister of Israel April 2019?

Options:
1. Benjamin Netanyahu
2. Imad Khamis
3. Ranil Wickremesinghe
4. Sheikh Hasina
Correct answer: Benjamin Netanyahu

Q20. Who was the founder of Bahujan Samaj Party?

Options:
1. Lakshman Singh
2. Kanshi Ram
3. Devi Lal
4. Munshi Ram
Correct answer: Kanshi Ram

Q21. Hypokalaemia is caused by the deficiency of ________.

Options:
1. Calcium
2. Iodine
3. Potassium
4. Iron
Correct answer:  Potassium

Q22. Which of the following classical dances and their places of origin is INCORRECTLY matched?

Options:
1. Sattriya-Assam
2. Bharatanatym-Tamilnadu
3. Mohiniattam-Kerala
4. Kuchipudi-Odisha
Correct answer: Kuchipudi-Odisha

Q23. According to which Article of the Constitution of India shall the council of ministers be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha?

Options:
1. Article 35
2. Article 302
3. Article 75
4. Article 29
Correct answer: Article 75

Q24. Who among the following was included in Facebook 'Hall of Fame 2019' for detetcing a Whatapp Bug that violated privacy of a user?

Options:
1. Jeje Lalpekula
2. Baichung Bhutia
3. Sonam Wangchuk
4. Zonel Sougaijam
Correct answer: Zonel Sougaijam

Q25. The Salal Project is constructed on the river:

Options:
1. Manjra
2. Chenab
3. Bhima
4. Krishna
Correct answer: Chenab

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